Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification - Part 38
Questions 1. A company is considering migrating its applications to AWS. The company wants to compare the cost of running the workload on-premises to running the equivalent workload on the AWS platform. Which tool can be used to perform this comparison?A) A. AWS Simple Monthly CalculatorB) B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) CalculatorC) C. AWS Billing and Cost Management consoleD) D. Cost Explorer2. Which AWS service provides a secure, fast, and cost-effective way to migrate or transport exabyte-scale datasets into AWS?A) A. AWS Batch B) B. AWS SnowballC) C. AWS Migration HubD) D. AWS Snowmobile3. Which of the following BEST describe the AWS pricing model? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Fixed-term B) B. Pay-as-you-goC) C. ColocationD) D. PlannedE) E. Variable cost4. Which load balancer types are available with Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Public load balancers with AWS Application Auto Scaling capabilitiesB) B. F5 Big-IP and Citrix NetScaler load balancersC) C. Classic Load BalancersD) D. Cross-zone load balancers with public and private IPsE) E. Application Load Balancers5. Why should a company choose AWS instead of a traditional data center?A) A. AWS provides users with full control over the underlying resources.B) B. AWS does not require long-term contracts and provides a pay-as-you-go model.C) C. AWS offers edge locations in every country, supporting global reach.D) D. AWS has no limits on the number of resources that can be created. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: TCO calculator compare the cost of running your applications in an on-premises or colocation environment to AWS. https://awstcocalculator.com2. Right Answer: DExplanation: AWS Snowmobile is an exabyte-scale data transfer service that can move extremely large amounts of data to AWS in a fast, secure, and cost-effective manner. You can transfer up to 100PB per Snowmobile, a 45-foot long ruggedized shipping container, pulled by a semi-trailer truck. Snowmobile makes it easy to move massive volumes of data to the cloud, including video libraries, image repositories, or even a complete data center migration. All data is encrypted with 256-bit encryption and you can manage your encryption keys with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS). Snowmobile includes GPS tracking, alarm monitoring, 24/7 video surveillance and an optional escort security vehicle while in transit.https://aws.amazon.com/about-aws/whats-new/2016/11/move-exabyte-scale-data-sets-with-awssnowmobile/3. Right Answer: B,EExplanation: https://d0.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/aws_pricing_overview.pdf4. Right Answer: C,EExplanation: Elastic Load Balancing supports the following types of load balancers: Application Load Balancers, Network Load Balancers, and Classic Load Balancers. Amazon ECS services can use either type of load balancer. Application Load Balancers are used to route HTTP/HTTPS (or Layer 7) traffic. Network Load Balancers and Classic Load Balancers are used to route TCP (or Layer 4) traffic. https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/load-balancer-types.html5. Right Answer: BExplanation: AWS offers you a pay-as-you-go approach for pricing for over 160 cloud services. With AWS you pay only for the individual services you need, for as long as you use them, and without requiring long-term contracts or complex licensing. AWS pricing is similar to how you pay for utilities like water and electricity. You only pay for the services you consume, and once you stop using them, there are no additional costs or termination fees.https://aws.amazon.com/pricing/ .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Security - Specialty - Part 41
Questions 1. You have just recently set up a web and database tier in a VPC and hosted the application. When testing the application , you are not able to reach the home page for the app. You have verified the security groups. What can help you diagnose the issue.A) Use VPC Flow logs to diagnose the trafficB) Use the AWS(Amazon Web Service) Trusted Advisor to se what can be done.C) Use AWS(Amazon Web Service) WAF to analyze the trafficD) Use AWS(Amazon Web Service) Guard Duty to analyze the traffic (Incorrect)2. An application running on EC2 instances in a VPC must call an external web service via TLS (port 443). The instances run in public subnets. Which configurations below allow the application to function and minimize the exposure of the Instances? Select one answer from the options given belowA) A security group with a rule that allows outgoing traffic on port 443B) A security group with rules that allow outgoing traffic on port 443 and incoming traffic on ephemeral ports.C) A security group with rules that allow outgoing traffic on port 443 and incoming traffic on port 443.D) A network ACL with rules that allow outgoing traffic on port 443 and incoming traffic on port 443E) A network ACL with a rule that allows outgoing traffic on port 443.F) A network ACL with rules that allow outgoing traffic on port 443 and incoming traffic on ephemeral ports3. A company is using CloudTrail to log all AWS(Amazon Web Service) API activity for all regions in all of its accounts. The CISO has asked that additional steps be taken to protect the integrity of the log files. What combination of steps will protect the log files from intentional or unintentional alteration? Choose 2 answers from the options given below(Select 2answers)A) Create an S3 bucket in a dedicated log account and grant the other accounts write only access. Deliver all log files from every account to this S3 bucket.B) Use Systems Manager Configuration Compliance to continually monitor the access policies of S3 buckets containing Cloud Trail logs. (Incorrect)C) Create a Security Group that blocks all traffic except calls from the CloudTrail service. Associate the security group with all the Cloud Trail destination S3 buckets.D) Write a Lambda function that queries the Trusted Advisor Cloud Trail checks. Run the function every 10 minutes.E) Enable Cloud Trail log file integrity validation4. Your development team has started using AWS(Amazon Web Service) resources for development purposes. The AWS(Amazon Web Service) account has just been created. Your IT Security team is worried about possible leakage of AWS(Amazon Web Service) keys. What is the first level of measure that should be taken to protect the AWS(Amazon Web Service) account ?A) Create AM GroupsB) Restrict access using AM policiesC) Create AM RolesD) Delete the AWS(Amazon Web Service) keys for the root account5. A Lambda function reads metadata from an S3 object and stores the metadata in a DynamoDB table. The function is triggered whenever an object is stored within the S3 bucket. How should the Lambda function be given access to the DynamoDB table?A) Create an IAM user with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Store an access key for that user in the Lambda environment variables.B) Create an IAM service role with permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Associate that role with the Lambda function.C) Create a resource policy that grants the Lambda function permissions to write to the DynamoDB table. Attach the policy to the DynamoDB table.D) Create a VPC endpoint for DynamoDB within a VPC. Configure the Lambda function to access resources in the VPC. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Option A is invalid because this can be used to check for security issues in your account , but not verify as to why you cannot reach the home page for your application Option C is invalid because this used to protect your app against application layer attacks , but not verify as to why you cannot reach the home page for your application Option D is invalid because this used to protect your instance against attacks , but not verify as to why you cannot reach the home page for your application The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation mentions the following VPC Flow Logs capture network flow information for a VPC, subnet, or network interface and stores it in Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Flow log data can help customers troubleshoot network issues; for example, to diagnose why specific traffic is not reaching an instance, which might be a result of overly restrictive security group rules. Customers can also use flow logs as a security tool to monitor the traffic that reaches their instances, to profile network traffic, and to look for abnormal traffic behaviours For more information on AWS(Amazon Web Service) Security, please visit the following URL https://aws.amazon.com/answers/networking/vpc-security-capabilities/2. Right Answer: FExplanation: 3. Right Answer: A,EExplanation: The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation mentions the following To determine whether a log file was modified, deleted, or unchanged after CloudTrail delivered it, you can use CloudTrail log file integrity validation. This feature is built using industry standard algorithms: SHA-256 for hashing and SHA-256 with RSA for digital signing. This makes it computationally infeasible to modify, delete or forge CloudTrail log files without detection. Option B is invalid because there is no such thing as Trusted Advisor Cloud Trail checks Option D is invalid because Systems Manager cannot be used for this purpose. Option E is invalid because Security Groups cannot be used to block calls from other services For more information on Cloudtrail log file validation, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/awscloudtrail/latest/userguide/cloudtrail-log-file-validation-intro.html For more information on delivering Cloudtrail logs from multiple accounts, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/awscloudtrail/latest/userguide/cloudtrail-receive-logs-from-multiple-accounts.html4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: The ideal way is to create an IAM role which has the required permissions and then associate it with the Lambda function The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation additionally mentions the following Each Lambda function has an IAM role (execution role) associated with it. You specify the IAM role when you create your Lambda function. Permissions you grant to this role determine what AWS(Amazon Web Service) Lambda can do when it assumes the role. There are two types of permissions that you grant to the IAM role: ? If your Lambda function code accesses other AWS(Amazon Web Service) resources, such as to read an object from an S3 bucket or write logs to CloudWatch Logs, you need to grant permissions for relevant Amazon S3 and CloudWatch actions to the role. ? If the event source is stream-based (Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and DynamoDB streams), AWS(Amazon Web Service) Lambda polls these streams on your behalf. AWS(Amazon Web Service) Lambda needs permissions to poll the stream and read new records on the stream so you need to grant the relevant permissions to this role. Option A is invalid because the VPC endpoint allows access instances in a private subnet to access DynamoDB Option B is invalid because resources policies are present for resources such as S3 and KMS , but not AWS(Amazon Web Service) Lambda Option C is invalid because AWS(Amazon Web Service) Roles should be used and not IAM Users For more information on the Lambda permission model, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/intro-permission-model.html .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 121
Questions 1. Which of the following malware technical fool's malware by appending section of themselves to files '' somewhat in the same way that file malware appends themselves?A) ScannersB) Active MonitorsC) ImmunizerD) Behavior blocker2. Which of the following statement INCORRECTLY describes anti-malware?A) 2B) 3C) 2 and 3D) None of the choices listed3. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Voice-Over IP (VoIP)?VoIP uses circuit switching technologyLower cost per call or even free calls, especially for long distance callLower infrastructure cost -VoIP is a technology where voice traffic is carried on top of existing data infrastructureA) VoIP uses circuit switching technologyB) Lower cost per call or even free calls, especially for long distance callC) Lower infrastructure costD) VoIP is a technology where voice traffic is carried on top of existing data infrastructure4. Private Branch Exchange(PBX) environment involves many security risks, one of which is the people both internal and external to an organization. Which of the following risks are NOT associated with Private Branch Exchange?1. Theft of service2. Disclosure of information3. Data Modifications4. Denial of service5. Traffic AnalysisA) 3 and 4B) 4 and 5C) 1-4D) They are ALL risks associated with PBX5. Which of the following is a sophisticated computer based switch that can be thought of as essentially a small in-house phone company for the organization?A) Private Branch ExchangeB) Virtual Local Area NetworkC) Voice over IPD) Dial-up connection Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Immunizers defend against malware by appending sections of themselves to files '' sometime in the same way Malware append themselves. Immunizers continuously check a file for changes and report changes as possible malware behavior. Other type of Immunizers are focused to a specific malware and work by giving the malware the impression that the malware has already infected to the computer. This method is not always practical since it is not possible to immunize file against all known malware.For your exam you should know below mentioned different kinds of malware ControlsA. Scanners- Look for sequences of bit called signature that are typical malware programs.The two primary types of scanner are1. Malware mask or Signatures '' Anti-malware scanners check files, sectors and system memory for known and new (unknown to scanner) malware, on the basis of malware masks or signatures. Malware masks or signature are specific code strings that are recognized as belonging to malware. For polymorphic malware, the scanner sometimes has algorithms that check for all possible combinations of a signature that could exist in an infected file.2. Heuristic Scanner '' Analyzes the instructions in the code being scanned and decide on the basis of statistical probabilities whether it could contain malicious code. Heuristic scanning result could indicate that malware may be present, that is possibly infected. Heuristic scanner tend to generate a high level false positive errors (they indicate that malware may be present when, in fact, no malware is present)Scanner examines memory disk- boot sector, executables, data files, and command files for bit pattern that match a known malware. Scanners, therefore, need to be updated periodically to remain effective.B. Immunizers '' Defend against malware by appending sections of themselves to files '' sometime in the same way Malware append themselves. Immunizers continuously check a file for changes and report changes as possible malware behavior. Other type of Immunizers are focused to a specific malware and work by giving the malware the impression that the malware has already infected to the computer. This method is not always practical since it is not possible to immunize file against all known malware.C. Behavior Blocker- Focus on detecting potential abnormal behavior such as writing to the boot sector or the master boot record, or making changes to executable files. Blockers can potentially detect malware at an early stage. Most hardware based anti-malware mechanism are based on this concept.D. Integrity CRC checker- Compute a binary number on a known malware free program that is then stored in a database file. The number is called CyclicRedundancy Check (CRC). On subsequent scans, when that program is called to execute, it checks for changes to the file as compare to the database and report possible infection if changes have occurred. A match means no infection; a mismatch means change in the program has occurred. A change in the program could mean malware within it. These scanners are effective in detecting infection; however, they can do so only after infection has occurred. Also, a CRC checker can only detect subsequent changes to files, because they assume files are malware free in the first place. Therefore, they are ineffective against new files that are malware infected and that are not recorded in the database. Integrity checker take advantage of the fact that executable programs and boot sectors do not change often, if at all.E. Active Monitors '' Active monitors interpret DOS and read-only memory (ROM) BIOS calls, looking for malware like actions. Active monitors can be problematic because they can not distinguish between a user request and a program or a malware request. As a result, users are asked to confirm actions, including formatting a disk or deleting a file or set of files.The following were incorrect answers:Scanners -Look for sequences of bit called signature that are typical malware programs.Active Monitors '' Active monitors interpret DOS and read-only memory (ROM) BIOS calls, looking for malware like actions. Active monitors can be problematic because they can not distinguish between a user request and a program or a malware request. As a result, users are asked to confirm actions, including formatting a disk or deleting a file or set of files.Behavior Blocker- Focus on detecting potential abnormal behavior such as writing to the boot sector or the master boot record, or making changes to executable files. Blockers can potentially detect malware at an early stage. Most hardware based anti-malware mechanism are based on this concept.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 354 and 3552. Right Answer: DExplanation: The word INCORRECT is the keyword used in the question. All the terms presented in options correctly describes some type of anti-malware related activities.For your exam you should know below mentioned different kinds of malware ControlsA. Scanners Look for sequences of bit called signature that are typical malware programs.The two primary types of scanner are1. Malware mask or Signatures '' Anti-malware scanners check files, sectors and system memory for known and new (unknown to scanner) malware, on the basis of malware masks or signatures. Malware masks or signature are specific code strings that are recognized as belonging to malware. For polymorphic malware, the scanner sometimes has algorithms that check for all possible combinations of a signature that could exist in an infected file.2. Heuristic Scanner '' Analyzes the instructions in the code being scanned and decide on the basis of statistical probabilities whether it could contain malicious code. Heuristic scanning result could indicate that malware may be present, that is possibly infected. Heuristic scanner tend to generate a high level false positive errors (they indicate that malware may be present when, in fact, no malware is present)Scanner examines memory disk- boot sector, executables, data files, and command files for bit pattern that match a known malware. Scanners, therefore, need to be updated periodically to remain effective.B. Immunizers '' Defend against malware by appending sections of themselves to files '' sometime in the same way Malware append themselves. Immunizers continuously check a file for changes and report changes as possible malware behavior. Other types of Immunizers are focused to a specific malware and work by giving the malware the impression that the malware has already infected to the computer. This method is not always practical since it is not possible to immunize file against all known malware.C. Behavior Blocker- Focus on detecting potential abnormal behavior such as writing to the boot sector or the master boot record, or making changes to executable files. Blockers can potentially detect malware at an early stage. Most hardware based anti-malware mechanism are based on this concept.D. Integrity CRC checker- Compute a binary number on a known malware free program that is then stored in a database file. The number is called CyclicRedundancy Check (CRC). On subsequent scans, when that program is called to execute, it checks for changes to the file as compare to the database and report possible infection if changes have occurred. A match means no infection; a mismatch means change in the program has occurred. A change in the program could mean malware within it. These scanners are effective in detecting infection; however, they can do so only after infection has occurred. Also, a CRC checker can only detect subsequent changes to files, because they assume files are malware free in the first place. Therefore, they are ineffective against new files that are malware infected and that are not recorded in the database. Integrity checker take advantage of the fact that executable programs and boot sectors do not change often, if at all.E. Active Monitors '' Active monitors interpret DOS and read-only memory (ROM) BIOS calls, looking for malware like actions. Active monitors can be problematic because they can not distinguish between a user request and a program or a malware request. As a result, users are asked to confirm actions, including formatting a disk or deleting a file or set of files.The following were incorrect answers:All of the choices presented other than one were describing Anti-Malware related activitiesThe following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 354 and 3553. Right Answer: AExplanation: The NOT is a keyword used in the question. You need to find out invalid statement about VoIP. VoIP uses packet switching and not circuit switching.For your exam you should know below information about VoIP:Voice-Over-IP -IP telephony, internet telephony, is the technology that makes it possible to have a voice conversation over the Internet or over any dedicated IP network instead of dedicated transmission lines. The protocol is used to carry the signal over the IP network are commonly referred as Voice-Over-IP (VoIP).VoIP is a technology where voice traffic is carried on top of existing data infrastructure. Sounds are digitalized into IP packets and transferred through the network layer before being decode back into the original voice.VoIP allows the elimination of circuit switching and the associated waste of bandwidth. Instead, packet switching is used, where IP packets with voice data are sent over the network only when data needs to be sent.It has advantages over traditional telephony:Unlike traditional telephony, VoIP innovation progresses at market rates rather than at the rates of multilateral committee process of the InternationalTelecommunication Union (ITU)Lower cost per call or even free calls, especially for long distance callLower infrastructure costs. Once IP infrastructure is installed, no or little additional telephony infrastructure is neededVoIP Security Issues -With the introduction of VoIP, the need for security is more important because it is needed to protect two assets '' the data and the voice.Protecting the security of conversation is vital now.In VoIP, packets are sent over the network from the user's computer or VoIP phone to similar equipment at other end. Packets may pass through several intermediate systems that are not under the control of the user's ISP.The current Internet architecture does not provide same physical wire security as phone line.The main concern of VoIP solution is that while, in the case of traditional telephones, if data system is disrupted, then the different sites of the organization could still be reached via telephone. Thus a backup communication facility should be planned for if the availability of communication is vital to organization.Another issue might arise with the fact that IP telephones and their supporting equipment require the same care and maintenance as computer system do.To enhance the protection of the telephone system and data traffic, the VoIP infrastructure should be segregated using Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN).In many cases, session border controllers (SBCs) are utilized to provide security features for VoIP traffic similar to that provided by firewalls.The following were incorrect answers:Lower cost per call or even free calls, especially for long distance call - This is a valid statement about VoIP. In fact it is an advantage of VoIP.Lower infrastructure cost - This is a valid statement and advantage of using VoIP as compare to traditional telephony system.VoIP is a technology where voice traffic is carried on top of existing data infrastructure '' This is also valid statement about VoIP.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number3554. Right Answer: DExplanation: The NOT is a keyword used in the question. You need to find out the risks which are NOT associated with PBX. All the risk listed within the options are associated with PBX.The threat of the PBX telephone system is many, depending on the goals of these attackers, and include:Theft of service - Toll fraud, probably the most common of motives for attacker.Disclosure of Information -Data disclosed without authorization, either by deliberate actionably accident. Examples includes eavesdropping on conversation and unauthorized access to routing and address data.Data Modification -Data altered in some meaningful way by recording, deleting or modifying it. For example, an intruder may change billing information or modify system table to gain additional services.Unauthorized access '' Actions that permit an unauthorized user to gain access to system resources or privileges.Denial of service -Actions that prevent the system from functioning in accordance with its intended purpose. A piece of equipment or entity may be rendered inoperable or forced to operate in a degraded state; operations that depend on timeliness may be delayed.Traffic Analysis '' A form of passive attack in which an intruder observes information about calls and make inferences, e.g. from the source and destination number or frequency and length of messages. For example, an intruder observes a high volume of calls between a company's legal department and patent office, and conclude that a patent is being filed.The following were incorrect answers:All the risks presented in options are associated with PBX. So other options are not valid.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number3565. Right Answer: AExplanation: A Private Branch Exchange(PBX) is a sophisticated computer based switch that can be thought of as essentially a small in-house phone company for the organization that operates it. Protection of PBX is thus a height priority. Failure to secure PBX can result in exposing the organization to toll fraud, theft of proprietary or confidential information, loss of revenue or legal entanglements.PBX environment involves many security risks, presented by people both internal and external to an organization. The threat of the PBX telephone system is many, depending on the goals of these attackers, and include:Theft of service - Toll fraud, probably the most common of motives for attacker.Disclosure of Information -Data disclosed without authorization, either by deliberate actionably accident. Examples includes eavesdropping on conversation and unauthorized access to routing and address data.Data Modification -Data altered in some meaningful way by recording, deleting or modifying it. For example, an intruder may change billing information or modify system table to gain additional services.Unauthorized access '' Actions that permit an unauthorized user to gain access to system resources or privileges.Denial of service -Actions that prevent the system from functioning in accordance with its intended purpose. A piece of equipment or entity may be rendered inoperable or forced to operate in a degraded state; operations that depend on timeliness may be delayed.Traffic Analysis '' A form of passive attack in which an intruder observes information about calls and make inferences, e.g. from the source and destination number or frequency and length of messages. For example, an intruder observes a high volume of calls between a company's legal department and patent office, and conclude that a patent is being filed.The following were incorrect answers:Virtual Local Area Network - A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical group of workstations, servers and network devices that appear to be on the sameLAN despite their geographical distribution. A VLAN allows a network of computers and users to communicate in a simulated environment as if they exist in a single LAN and are sharing a single broadcast and multicast domain. VLANs are implemented to achieve scalability, security and ease of network management and can quickly adapt to change in network requirements and relocation of workstations and server nodes.Voice over IP - VoIP is a technology where voice traffic is carried on top of existing data infrastructure. Sounds are digitalized into IP packets and transferred through the network layer before being decode back into the original voice.Dial-up connection - Dial-up refers to an Internet connection that is established using a modem. The modem connects the computer to standard phone lines, which serve as the data transfer medium. When a user initiates a dial-up connection, the modem dials a phone number of an Internet Service Provider (ISP) that is designated to receive dial-up calls. The ISP then establishes the connection, which usually takes about ten seconds and is accompanied by several beeping an buzzing sounds.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 356 .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 377
Questions 1. An IS auditor should ensure that an application's audit trail:A) has adequate securityB) does not impact operational efficiency.C) is accessible on-line.D) logs all database records.2. As part of an audit response, an auditee has concerns with the recommendations and is hesitant to implement them. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action for the IS auditor?A) Accept the auditee's response and perform additional testing.B) Conduct further discussions with the auditee to develop a mitigation plan.C) Suggest hiring a third-party consultant to perform a current state assessment.D) Issue a final report without including the opinion of the auditee.3. Which of the following is the FIRST step in initiating a data classification program?A) Risk appetite assessmentB) Inventory of data assetsC) Assignment of data ownershipD) Assignment of sensitivity levels4. Which of the following should be used to assess the level of security required to protect information on a corporate network?A) Data classificationB) Business intelligenceC) Access rightsD) Access control matrix5. Which of the following is the MOST important difference between end-user computing (EUC) applications and traditional applications?A) Traditional application documentation is typically less comprehensive than EUC application documentation.B) Traditional applications require roll-back procedures whereas EUC applications do not.C) Traditional applications require periodic patching whereas EUC applications do not.D) Traditional application input controls are typically more robust than EUC application input controls. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: The data classification process starts with the process of establishing ownership of data. This process also helps to prepare data dictionary4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISM—Certified Information Security Manager - Part 237
Questions 1. A risk has been formally accepted and documented.Which of the following is the MOST important action for an information security manager?A) Update risk tolerance levels.B) Notify senior management and the board.C) Monitor the environment for changes.D) Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.2. From a business perspective, the MOST important function of information security is to support:A) predictable operations.B) international standards.C) security awareness.D) corporate policy.3. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a business case to help obtain senior management's commitment for an information security investment?A) Results of an independent auditB) Industry best practicesC) Projected business valueD) Reference to business polices4. Which of the following is the MOST effective method for assessing the effectiveness of a security awareness program?A) Post-incident reviewB) Social engineering testC) Vulnerability scanD) Tabletop test5. Which of the following is the BEST way to sustain employee interest in information awareness in an organization?A) Ensuring a common security awareness program for all staffB) Relating security awareness programs to security policiesC) Ensuring all staff are involvedD) Using a variety of delivery methods Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia A+ 1002 2023 Questions and answer - Part 55
Questions 1. A technician receives a call regarding a PC-s slow performance. The client states that most applications are slow to respond; boot up and shutdown take much longer than they used to. Hard drive diagnostics pass, but there are error messages in the event viewer stating that the file system is corrupt. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?A) A. Reload the OS using FAT32 instead of NTFS.B) B. Change the disk from basic to dynamic.C) C. Run chkdsk with the /r switch and reboot the PC.D) D. Open the defrag utility and run a drive analysis.2. Joe, an end-user, reports that the Windows PC he is using automatically locks when he leaves his desk and walks to a printer to retrieve documents. Joe is then required to type in his username and password to unlock the computer. The technician looks at the settings on the PC and notices that the screensaver and screen-lock options are grayed out on the computer and cannot be changed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?A) A. Domain-level group policiesB) B. Antivirus domain-level policiesC) C. Corrupted registry settingsD) D. Incorrect local-level user policies3. An IPS appliance is installed on the network. Which of the following is the purpose of the IPS?A) A. To check the network for unwanted activityB) B. To check and stop unwanted activityC) C. To provide connectivity to the networkD) D. To test the resilience of the network4. In preparation for an operating system upgrade, a technician is tasked with installing additional memory modules in a computer. Which of the following safety steps should be performed FIRST?A) A. Use safety gogglesB) B. Remove jewelryC) C. Put on an ESD strapD) D. Disconnect power5. A user-s email inbox is suddenly receiving dozens of rejection messages from various mail servers. Which of the following would the technician perform to BEST solve the issue?A) A. Change the user-s email password.B) B. Enable spam filtering on the email account.C) C. Change the email account from POP to IMAP.D) D. Disable the user-s email account. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia Linux + 2023 Questions and answer - Part 5
Questions 1. Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?A) A. dnsqB) B. digC) C. hostnameD) D. dnslookupE) E. zoneinfo2. What of the following can be done by the command ifconfig? (Choose TWO correct answers.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Set a network interface active or inactive.B) B. Specify the kernel module to be used with a network interface.C) C. Allow regular users to change the network configuration of a network interface.D) D. Change the netmask used on a network interface.E) E. Specify which network services are available on a network interface.3. Which of the following programs can be used to determine the routing path to a given destination?A) A. digB) B. netstatC) C. pingD) D. routeE) E. traceroute4. Given the following routing table:Kernel IP routing table -Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface0.0.0.0 192.168.178.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 wlan0192.168.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0192.168.2.0 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0192.168.178.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 9 0 0 wlan0How would an outgoing packet to the destination 192.168.2.150 be handled?A) A. It would be passed to the default router 192.168.178.1 on wlan0.B) B. It would be directly transmitted on the device eth0.C) C. It would be passed to the default router 255.255.255.0 on eth0.D) D. It would be directly transmitted on the device wlan0.E) E. It would be passed to the router 192.168.1.1 on eth0.5. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?A) A. 2001:db8:3241::1B) B. 2001::db8:4581::1C) C. 2001:db8:0g41::1D) D. 2001%db8%9990%%1E) E. 2001.db8.819f..1 Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: D,EExplanation: 3. Right Answer: EExplanation: 4. Right Answer: EExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
ComptiA Security+ Certification Exam Questions and answer - Part 31
Questions 1. An office recently completed digitizing all its paper records. Joe,the data custodian,has been tasked with the disposal of the paper files,which include: Intellectual property Payroll records Financial information Drug screening results Which of the following is the BEST way to dispose of these items?A) SchreddingB) PulpingC) DeidentifyingD) Recycling2. An organization electronically processes sensitive data within a controlled facility. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to limit emissions from emanating from the facility. Which of the following mitigates this risk?A) Upgrading facility cabling to a higher standard of protected cabling to reduce the likelihood of emission spillageB) Hardening the facility through the use of secure cabinetry to block emissionsC) Hardening the facility with a Faraday cage to contain emissions produced from data processingD) Employing security guards to ensure unauthorized personnel remain outside of the facility3. An organization employee resigns without giving adequate notice. The following day,it is determined that the employee is still in possession of several company- owned mobile devices. Which of the following could have reduced the risk of this occurring? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) Proper offboarding proceduresB) Acceptable use policiesC) Non-disclosure agreementsD) Exit interviewsE) Background checksF) Separation of duties4. An organization finds that most help desk calls are regarding account lockout due to a variety of applications running on different systems. Management is looking for a solution to reduce the number of account lockouts while improving security. Which of the following is the BEST solution for this organization?A) Create multiple application accounts for each user.B) Provide secure tokens.C) Implement SSO.D) Utilize role-based access control.5. An organization has air gapped a critical system. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attacks that are prevented by this security measure?A) Attacks from another local network segmentB) Attacks exploiting USB drives and removable mediaC) Attacks that spy on leaked emanations or signalsD) Attacks that involve physical intrusion or theft Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: A,DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
APICS Certified Supply Chain Professional CSCPPractice Questions 2023 - Part 42
Questions 1. Direct shipment distribution typically offers which of the following advantages?A) Risk pooling is facilitated.B) Demand variability is reduced.C) Service levels are increased.D) Lead times are reduced.2. Which of the following distribution approaches for a low-volume, high-variety product line typically will result in the highest level of customer service and the lowest total distribution costs?A) Direct shipment from plant to customersB) Shipment from a central distribution warehouseC) Shipment through a multi-echelon distribution networkD) Outsourcing the distribution function3. The most cost-effective way to increase the velocity of goods in a supply chain is to:A) improve the way the supply chain handles goods that are not in motion.B) switch to a faster mode of transportation.C) establish warehouses near major retail outlets.D) subcontract with multiple third-party logistics (3PL) providers who are located at strategic locations.4. In a reverse supply chain, which of the following tools enables forecasting the usability of each part in the returned product?A) Reverse network designB) Warranty return rate analysisC) A disassembly bill of material (BOM)D) Design for service5. A company has designed its supply chain so that financial losses in one part of the supply chain will be offset by gains in another part. The company is employing which of the following strategies to address global risk?A) SpeculationB) FlexibilityC) Product shiftingD) Hedging Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Explanation -The third-party logistics provider is better positioned to adapt to different technologies used by the company's clients. This potentially expands the company's customer base at a reduced cost.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: Explanation -Hedge inventory is not a commonly used term in organizations, but many organizations do practice hedging when it comes to inventory. Hedging involves managing risk by building, buying, or contractually guaranteeing additional inventory at a set price if supply could be threatened or prices could rise. These decisions involve speculating on events such as the weather, the economy, labor strikes, civil strife, or political actions. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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