Created by - Mary Smith
ComptiA Security+ Certification Exam Questions and answer - Part 32
Questions 1. An organization has an account management policy that defines parameters around each type of account. The policy specifies different security attributes,such as longevity,usage auditing,password complexity,and identity proofing. The goal of the account management policy is to ensure the highest level of security while providing the greatest availability without compromising data integrity for users. Which of the following account types should the policy specify for service technicians from corporate partners?A) Guest accountB) User accountC) Shared accountD) Privileged user accountE) Default accountF) Service account2. An organization has several production-critical SCADA supervisory systems that cannot follow the normal 30- day patching policy. Which of the following BEST maximizes the protection of these systems from malicious software?A) Configure a firewall with deep packet inspection that restricts traffic to the systems.B) Configure a separate zone for the systems and restrict access to known ports.C) Configure the systems to ensure only necessary applications are able to run.D) Configure the host firewall to ensure only the necessary applications have listening ports3. An organization is comparing and contrasting migration from its standard desktop configuration to the newest version of the platform. Before this can happen,the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) voices the need to evaluate the functionality of the newer desktop platform to ensure interoperability with existing software in use by the organization. In which of the following principles of architecture and design is the CISO engaging?A) Dynamic analysisB) Change managementC) BaseliningD) Waterfalling4. An organization is expanding its network team. Currently,it has local accounts on all network devices,but with growth,it wants to move to centrally managed authentication. Which of the following are the BEST solutions for the organization? (Select TWO)(Select 2answers)A) TACACS+B) CHAPC) LDAPD) RADIUSE) MSCHAPv25. An organization is moving its human resources system to a cloud services provider. The company plans to continue using internal usernames and passwords with the service provider,but the security manager does not want the service provider to have a company of the passwords. Which of the following options meets all of these requirements?A) Two-factor authenticationB) Account and password synchronizationC) Smartcards with PINSD) Federated authentication Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: A,DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
APICS Certified Supply Chain Professional CSCPPractice Questions 2023 - Part 43
Questions 1. Which of the following actions by trading partners will likely reduce the goods that will be processed by the reverse supply chain?A) Contracting with a third party to process returned goodsB) Designing products that are easy to disassembleC) Working to delay regulations that require accepting returnsD) Providing support and service for proper product use2. In order to bring a new product to market quickly while maximizing customer value and minimizing costs, a company should leverage:A) top performing suppliers in the areas of quality, cost, and availability.B) crowdsourcing for design capital requirements.C) e-commerce trading methods.D) concurrent engineering or participative design.3. Quality function deployment (QFD) is a methodology designed to ensure that:A) quality is maintained at all levels of the organization.B) suppliers providing high-quality parts are certified.C) defective products do not reach customers.D) customer requirements are understood and met.4. Which of the following objectives is a major principle of theory of constraints (TOC) accounting when applied to a supply chain?A) Total inventory reductionB) Maximize process utilizationC) Maximize revenue generationD) Product design simplification5. The design process by which a firm structures and manages the supply chain to achieve optimization is called:A) an information network.B) network planning.C) smoothing.D) logistical planning. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Practice Test Questions 2023 - Part 3
Questions 1. When trying to send a call out of Cisco Unity Connection, what happens when enabling the transfer to an alternate contact number, located under caller input?A) The restriction table is not checked when a user changes the extension number via a TUI conversationB) The restriction table is checked when an administrator changes the extension number via the Cisco Unity Connection admin pageC) The restriction table is not checked when an administrator changes the extension number via the Cisco Unity Connection admin pageD) 2. What prevents toll fraud on voicemail ports?A) CSSB) FACC) IP address trusted list on the PSTN gatewayD) Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer service parameter3. Which DNS record is used for on-premises service by Jabber clients?A) A recordB) _cisco-uds._tls. SRV recordC) _cisco-uds._tcp. SRV recordD) _collab-edge._tcp. SRV record4. Which two child elements can be in an XMPP message stanza? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) B) C) D) E) 5. Which statement describes a role of AXL communications in the BLF Plug-in Service of the Cisco Unified Attendant Console?A) The AXL communications is required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified CM versions.B) The AXL communications is required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified Attendant Console versions match.C) The AXL communications enable Device Resolution Manager to resolve the device statuses of operator and system devices.D) The AXL communications allow registered attendants to log in to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and receive calls Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: C,EExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS ANS-C00 Certified Advanced Networking Practice Questions 2023 - Part 23
Questions 1. Your company has many remote branch offices that need to connect with your AWS(Amazon Web Service) VPC. Which of the following can help achieve this connectivity In an easy manner?A) AWS Direct Connect with a Private VIFB) AWS Direct Connect with a Public V1FC) VPC PeeringD) VPN Cloud hub2. You?ve setup a private hosted zone in Route 53. You?ve setup a VPN connection between the AWS(Amazon Web Service) VPC and your on-premise network. You need to ensure that you can resolve DNS names from on-premise to the resources records defined in the Private hosted zone. How can you accomplish this?A) Create a DNS forwarder server in your on-premise location. Configure the VPC with a new DHCP options s which uses this DNS forwarder.B) Configure a DNS resolver in the VPC which will resolve DNS requests to the Route 53 private hosted zone.C) Configure a DNS forwarder In the VPC which will forward DNS requests to the Route 53 private hosted zoneD) Create a DNS resolver server in your on-premise location. Configure the VPC with a new DHCP options set which uses this DNS resolver.3. Your company is planning on using AWS(Amazon Web Service) EC2 and ELB for deployment for their web applications. The security policy mandates that all traffic should be encrypted. Which of the below options will ensure that this requirement is met. Choose 2 answers from the options below.(Select 2answers)A) Ensure the load balancer listens on port 80B) Ensure the hTTPS listener sends requests to the Instances on port 80C) Ensure the HTTPS listener sends requests to the instances on port 443D) Ensure the load balancer listens on port 4434. You are planning on creating a VPC endpoint for your SaaS product hosted in AWS. You will provide this link to a customer who will access the link from their application. The application works on the UDP protocol. You plan on providing the DNS name for the link to them. But the customer is not able to use the link from within their application. What could be the issue?A) The gateway endpoint has a policy that denies access. This should be modified accordingly.B) The customer needs to use a NAT device to access the endpoint serviceC) The service endpoint only works on the TCP protocolD) The customer needs to create a Network load balancer to access the endpoint service5. Your company currently hosts an application that consists of a NGINX web server that is hosted behind a load balancer. You need to ensure that you restrict access to certain locations for the content hosted on the Web server. How can you accomplish this?A) Use the IP addresses in the X-Forwarded-For HTTP header and then restrict content via Cloud front geor estrictions.B) Use the ELB itself to restrict content via geo-restrictionsC) Use the ELB logs to create a blacklist for restrictionsD) Use the NGINX logs to get the web server variable and then use the IP address to restrict content via Cloud front geo-restrictions. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: C,DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification - Part 40
Questions 1. How does AWS MOST effectively reduce computing costs for a growing start-up company?A) A. It provides on-demand resources for peak usage. B) B. It automates the provisioning of individual developer environments.C) C. It automates customer relationship management.D) D. It implements a fixed monthly computing budget.2. A startup is working on a new application that needs to go to market quickly. The application requirements may need to be adjusted in the near future. Which of the following is a characteristic of the AWS Cloud that would meet this specific need?A) A. ElasticityB) B. Reliability C) C. PerformanceD) D. Agility3. Which AWS Support plan provides a full set of AWS Trusted Advisor checks?A) A. Business and Developer Support B) B. Business and Basic SupportC) C. Enterprise and Developer SupportD) D. Enterprise and Business Support4. Which of the following services have Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) mitigation features? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. AWS WAF B) B. Amazon DynamoDBC) C. Amazon EC2D) D. Amazon CloudFrontE) E. Amazon Inspector5. When building a cloud Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) model, which cost elements should be considered for workloads running on AWS? (Choose three.)(Select 3answers)A) A. Compute costs B) B. Facilities costsC) C. Storage costsD) D. Data transfer costsE) E. Network infrastructure costsF) F. Hardware lifecycle costs Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can continue to optimize your spend and keep your development costs low by making sure you revisit your architecture often, to adjust to your startup growth. Manage your cost further by leveraging different options such as S3 CloudFront for caching & offloading to reduce cost of EC2 computing, as well as Elastic Load Balancing which prepares you for massive scale, high reliability and uninterrupted growth. Another way to keep costs down is to use AWS Identity and Access Management solutions (IAM) to manage governance of your cost drivers effectively and by the right teams. https://aws.amazon.com/startups/lean/2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Agile is a time boxed, iterative approach to software delivery that builds software incrementally from the start of the project, instead of trying to deliver it all at once near the end.http://www.agilenutshell.com3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: A,DExplanation: https://aws.amazon.com/shield/5. Right Answer: A,C,EExplanation: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/the-new-aws-tco-calculator/ .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Security - Specialty - Part 43
Questions 1. An application running on EC2 instances must use a username and password to access a database. The developer has stored those secrets in the SSM Parameter Store with type SecureString using the default KMS CMK.Which combination of configuration steps will allow the application to access the secrets via the API? Select 2 answers from the options below(Select 2answers)A) Add the SSM service role as a trusted service to the EC2 instance role.B) Add permission to use the KMS key to decrypt to the EC2 instance roleC) Add permission to use the KMS key to decrypt to the SSM service role.D) Add permission to read the SSM parameter to the EC2 instance role.E) Add the EC2 instance role as a trusted service to the SSM service role.2. A security team must present a daily briefing to the CISO that includes a report of which of the company's thousands of EC2 instances and on-premises servers are missing the latest security patches. All instances/servers must be brought into compliance within 24 hours so they do not show up on the next day's report.How can the security team fulfill these requirements?A) Use Systems Manger Patch Manger to generate the report of out of compliance instances/ servers. Use Systems Manager Patch Manger to install the missing patches.B) Use Systems Manger Patch Manger to generate the report of out of compliance instances/ servers. Redeploy all out of compliance instances/servers using an AMI with the latest patches. (Incorrect)C) Use Trusted Advisor to generate the report of out of compliance instances/ servers. Use Systems Manger Patch Manger to install the missing patches.D) Use Amazon QuickSight and Cloud Trail to generate the report of out of compliance instances/servers. Redeploy all out of compliance instances/servers using an AMI with the latest patches.3. You are deivising a policy to allow users to have the ability to access objects in a bucket called appbucket.You define the below custom bucket policy{ 'ID': 'Policy1502987489630','Version': '2012-10-17','Statement': [{'Sid': 'Stmt1502987487640','Action': ['s3:GetObject','s3:GetObjectVersion'],'Effect': 'Allow','Resource': 'arn:aws:s3:::appbucket','Principal': '*'}]}But when you try to apply the policy you get the error'Action does not apply to any resource(s) in statement. What should be done to rectify the errorA) Change the Resource section to 'arn:aws:s3:::appbucket/*'.B) Change the IAM permissions by applying PutBucketPolicy permissions.C) Create the bucket 'appbucket' and then apply the policy. (Incorrect)D) Verify that the policy has the same name as the bucket name. If not, make it the same.4. A company wants to have an Intrusion detection system available for their VPC in AWS. They want to have complete control over the system. Which of the following would be ideal to implement?A) Use AWS(Amazon Web Service) Cloudwatch to monitor all traffic (Incorrect)B) Use a custom solution available in the AWS(Amazon Web Service) MarketplaceC) Use VPC Flow logs to detect the issues and flag them accordingly.D) Use AWS(Amazon Web Service) WAF to catch all intrusions occurring on the systems in the VPC5. You have an instance setup in a test environment in AWS. You installed the required application and the promoted the server to a production environment. Your IT Security team has advised that there maybe traffic flowing in from an unknown IP address to port 22. How can this be mitigated immediately?A) Change the Instance type for the Instance (Incorrect)B) Change the AMI for the instanceC) Shutdown the instanceD) Remove the rule for incoming traffic on port 22 for the Security Group Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: B,DExplanation: The below example policy from the AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation is required to be given to the EC2 Instance in order to read a secure string from AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS. Permissions need to be given to the Get Parameter API and the KMS API call to decrypt the secret. { 'Version': '2012-10-17', 'Statement': [ { 'Effect': 'Allow', 'Action': [ 'ssm:GetParameter*' ], 'Resource': 'arn:aws:ssm:us-west-2:111122223333:/parameter/ReadableParameters/*' }, { 'Effect': 'Allow', 'Action': [ 'kms:Decrypt' ], 'Resource': 'arn:aws:kms:us-west-2:111122223333:key/1234abcd-12ab-34cd-56ef-1234567890ab' } ] } Option A is invalid because roles can be attached to EC2 and not EC2 roles to SSM Option B is invalid because the KMS key does not need to decrypt the SSM service role. Option E is invalid because this configuration is valid For more information on the parameter store, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/services-parameter-store.html2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Use the Systems Manger Patch Manger to generate the report and also install the missing patches The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation mentions the following AWS Systems Manager Patch Manager automates the process of patching managed instances with security-related updates. For Linux-based instances, you can also install patches for non-security updates. You can patch fleets of Amazon EC2 instances or your on-premises servers and virtual machines (VMs) by operating system type. This includes supported versions of Windows, Ubuntu Server, Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL), SUSE Linux Enterprise Server (SLES), and Amazon Linux. You can scan instances to see only a report of missing patches, or you can scan and automatically install all missing patches. Option A is invalid because Amazon QuickSight and Cloud Trail cannot be used to generate the list of servers that don't meet compliance needs. Option C is wrong because deploying instances via new AMI's would impact the applications hosted on these servers Option D is invalid because Amazon Trusted Advisor cannot be used to generate the list of servers that don't meet compliance needs. For more information on the AWS(Amazon Web Service) Patch Manager, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manager/latest/userguide/systems-manager-patch.html3. Right Answer: AExplanation: When you define access to objects in a bucket, you need to ensure that you specify to which objects in the bucket access needs to be given to. In this case , the * can be used to assign the permission to all objects in the bucket. Option A is invalid because the right permissions are already provided as per the question requirement Option B is invalid because it is not necessary that the policy has the same name as the bucket Option D is invalid because this should be the default flow for applying the policy For more information on bucket policies please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/example-bucket-policies.html4. Right Answer: BExplanation: Sometimes companies want to have custom solutions in place for monitoring Intrusions to their systems. In such a case , you can use the AWS(Amazon Web Service) Marketplace for looking at custom solutions. Option A,C and D are all invalid because they cannot be used to conduct intrusion detection or prevention For more information on using custom security solutions please visit the below URL https://d1.awsstatic.com/Marketplace/security/AWSMP_Security_Solution%20Overview.pdf5. Right Answer: DExplanation: In the test environment, the security groups might have been opened to all IP addresses for testing purpose. Always to ensure to remove this rule once all testing is completed. Option A , C and D are all invalid because this would affect the application running on the server. The easiest way is just to remove the rule for access on port 22. For more information on authorizing access to an instance, please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/authorizing-access-to-an-instance.html .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 123
Questions 1. Who is primarily responsible for storing and safeguarding the data?A) Data OwnerB) Data UserC) Data StewardD) Security Administrator2. Who is responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS program, data and equipment?A) Data OwnerB) Data UserC) Data CustodianD) Security Administrator3. Who is responsible for restricting and monitoring access of a data user?A) Data OwnerB) Data UserC) Data CustodianD) Security Administrator4. Who is responsible for authorizing access level of a data user?A) Data OwnerB) Data UserC) Data CustodianD) Security Administrator5. During Involuntary termination of an employee, which of the following is the MOST important step to be considered?A) Get a written NDA agreement from an employeeB) Terminate all physical and logical accessC) Provide compensation in lieu of notice periodD) Do not communicate to the respective employee about the termination Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Data Steward or data custodian is responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analyst and computer operators.For CISA exam you should know below roles in an organizationData Owners '' These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business. Their security responsibilities include authorizing access, ensuring that access rules are updated when personnel changes occur, and regularly review access rule for the data for which they are responsible.Data Custodian or Data Steward '' These people are responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analysis and computer operators.Security Administrator -Security administrator is responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data. Their level of access into the computer should be authorized by data owners, and restricted and monitor by security administrator.The following were incorrect answers:Data Owner- These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data.Security Administrator - Security administrator is responsible for providing adequate and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number3612. Right Answer: DExplanation: Security administrator are responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.For CISA exam you should know below roles in an organizationData Owners '' These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business. Their security responsibilities include authorizing access, ensuring that access rules are updated when personnel changes occur, and regularly review access rule for the data for which they are responsible.Data Custodian or Data Steward '' These people are responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analysis and computer operators.Security Administrator -Security administrator is responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data. Their level of access into the computer should be authorized by data owners, and restricted and monitor by security administrator.The following were incorrect answers:Data Owner- These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data.Data custodian is responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analyst and computer operators.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3613. Right Answer: DExplanation: Security administrator are responsible for providing adequate and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.For CISA exam you should know below roles in an organizationData Owners '' These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business. Their security responsibilities include authorizing access, ensuring that access rules are updated when personnel changes occur, and regularly review access rule for the data for which they are responsible.Data Custodian or Data Steward '' These people are responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analysis and computer operators.Security Administrator-Security administrator are responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data. Their level of access into the computer should be authorized by data owners, and restricted and monitor by security administrator.The following were incorrect answers:Data Owner - These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data.Data custodian is responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analyst and computer operators.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3614. Right Answer: AExplanation: Data owners are responsible for authorizing access level of a data user. These peoples are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business. Their security responsibilities include authorizing access, ensuring that access rules are updated when personnel changes occur, and regularly review access rule for the data for which they are responsible.For your exam you should know below roles in an organizationData Owners '' Data Owners are generally managers and directors responsible for using information for running and controlling the business. Their security responsibilities include authorizing access, ensuring that access rules are updated when personnel changes occur, and regularly review access rule for the data for which they are responsible.Data Custodian or Data Steward ''are responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analysis and computer operators.Security Administrator -Security administrator is responsible for providing adequate physical and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data. Their level of access into the computer should be authorized by data owners, and restricted and monitor by security administrator.The following were incorrect answers:Security Administrator -Security administrator is responsible for providing adequate and logical security for IS programs, data and equipment.Data Users '' Data users, including internal and external user community, are the actual user of computerized data.Data custodian is responsible for storing and safeguarding the data, and include IS personnel such as system analyst and computer operators.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3615. Right Answer: BExplanation: For CISA exam you should know below information about Terminated Employee AccessTermination of employment can occur in the following circumstances:On the request of the employee (Voluntary resignation from service)Scheduled (On retirement or completion of contract)Involuntary (forced by management in special circumstances)In case of an involuntary termination of employment, the logical and physical access rights of employees to the IT infrastructure should either be withdrawn completely or highly restricted as early as possible, before the employee become aware of termination or its likelihood.This ensures that terminated employees cannot continue to access potentially confidential or damaging information from the IT resources or perform any action that would result in damage of any kind of IT infrastructure, applications and data. Similar procedure in place to terminate access for third parties upon terminating their activities with the organization.When it is necessary for employee to continue to have accesses, such access must be monitored carefully and continuously and should take place with senior management's knowledge and authorization.In case of a voluntary or scheduled termination of employment, it is management's prerogative to decide whether access is restricted or withdrawn. This depends on:The specific circumstances associated with each caseThe sensitivity of employee's access to the IT infrastructure and resourcesThe requirement of the organization's information security policies, standards and procedure.The following were incorrect answers:The other options presented are incorrectly describes about involuntary termination.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 361 and 362 .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 379
Questions 1. An organization is replacing its financial processing system. To help ensure that transactions in the new system are processed accurately, which of the following is MOST appropriate?A) Compare year-to-date balances between the systems.B) Reconcile results of parallel processing.C) Document and test internal controls over the conversion.D) Review data file conversion procedures.2. Which of the following methods would be MOST effective in verifying that all changes have been authorized?A) Reconciling problem tickets with authorized change control entriesB) Reconciling reports of changes in production libraries to authorized change log entriesC) Validating authorized change log entries with individual(s) who promoted into productionD) Reconciling reports of changes in development libraries to supporting documentation3. During the evaluation of a firm's newly established whistleblower system, an auditor notes several findings. Which of the following should be the auditor'sGREATEST concern?A) New employees have not been informed of the whistleblower policy.B) The whistleblower's privacy is not protected.C) The whistleblower system does not track the time and date of submission.D) The whistleblower system is only available during business hours.4. An organization has established three IS processing environments: development, test, and production. The MAJOR reason for separating the development and test environments is to:A) obtain segregation of duties between IS staff and end users.B) limit the user's access rights to the test environment.C) perform testing in a stable environment.D) protect the programs under development from unauthorized testing.5. An organization allows its employees to use personal mobile devices for work. Which of the following would BEST maintain information security without compromising employee privacy?A) Partitioning the work environment from personal space on devicesB) Preventing users from adding applicationsC) Restricting the use of devices for personal purposes during working hoursD) Installing security software on the devices Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISM—Certified Information Security Manager - Part 239
Questions 1. The MOST important outcome of information security governance is:A) business risk avoidance.B) informed decision making.C) alignment with business goals.D) alignment with compliance requirements.2. An organization will be outsourcing mission-critical processes.Which of the following is MOST important to verify before signing the service level agreement (SLA)?A) The provider has implemented the latest technologies.B) The provider's technical staff are evaluated annually.C) The provider is widely known within the organization's industry.D) The provider has been audited by a recognized audit form.3. Which of the following should be thePRIMARY input when defining the desired state of security within an organization?A) Acceptable risk levelB) Annual loss expectancyC) External audit resultsD) Level of business impact4. What is the BEST -way for a customer to authenticate an e-commerce vendor?A) Use a secure communications protocol for the connection.B) Verify the vendor's certificate with a certificate authority.C) Request email verification of the order.D) Encrypt the order using the vendor's private key.5. Which of the following would BESTenhance firewall security?A) Placing the firewall on a screened subnetB) Logging of security eventsC) Implementing change-control practicesD) Providing dynamic address assignment Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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