Created by - Mary Smith
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Practice Test Questions 2023 - Part 2
Questions 1. Users report issues while logging in to their voicemail using the Voicemail tab in their Cisco Jabber clients. The issue occurs after users provide valid Cisco Unified Communications credentials, but they receive a failure message. What is the cause of this issue?A) A proper service profile is not configured on Cisco Unified Communications ManagerB) The voicemail users are not configured in the Cisco Unity Connection server.C) The web application voicemail password is set â??User Must Change at Next Sign-inâ?D) 2. Fraudulent calls are being made from Cisco Unity Connection. Which action prevents the calls from reaching the PSTN using SCCP integration?A) Change the CSS of the voicemail port.B) Change the Rerouting CSS on the trunk to Cisco Unity Connection.C) Change the configuration of the routing ruleD) 3. Which step is the first for web-based single sign-on login?A) Present authentication assertionB) Redirect to IdP to get authenticatedC) AuthenticateD) Request access to protected service4. To redirect calls from the phone extension for user A to the voicemail greeting, which call routing rule should be used in Cisco Unity Connection?A) Attempt Forward forwarded routing ruleB) Attempt Sign-In direct routing ruleC) Opening Greeting direct routing ruleD) 5. An engineer is checking the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unity Connection integration and presses the Message button on a phone to check the voicemail. Which action does Cisco Unified CM take?A) Cisco Unified CM looks up the voicemail pilot configured to dialB) Cisco Unified CM routes the configured hunt pilot to Unity ConnectionC) Cisco Unified CM looks up the hunt pilot configured to dial.D) Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS ANS-C00 Certified Advanced Networking Practice Questions 2023 - Part 22
Questions 1. Your company is planning on setting up an AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect connection along with a private VIF. The company ahs 169 IP prefixes that will be advertised via the private VIF. The company has raised the request and ensured that the equipment is in place. What is an implementation step that they need to consider to ensure the connection works as desired?A) Create a VPN connectionB) Ensure a VPC Peering connection is in placeC) Ensure to also create a public VIF to access the resources in the VPCD) Summarise the routes into a default route2. You are planning on setting up an AWS(Amazon Web Service) VPN managed connection. You have a customer gateway that is behind a NAT device. In such a case what steps should be taken to ensure proper connectivity. Choose 2 answers from the options given below?(Select 2answers)A) Use the public lP address of the NAT deviceB) Ensure the on-premise firewall has UDP port 4500 unblockedC) Ensure the on-premise firewall has TCP port 4500 unblockedD) Use the private IP address of the customer gateway3. Your company is planning on setting up an AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct connect connection to an AWS(Amazon Web Service) VPC. They want to achieve maximum fault tolerance � have maximum bandwidth at all times. How can this be achieved?A) Two Virtual Private gateway One AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect Location One Customer gatewayB) Two Virtual Private gateway Two AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect Locations One Customer gatewayC) One Virtual Private gateway One AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect Location One VPN connectionD) One Virtual Private gateway Two AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect Locations Two Customer gateways4. Your company is planning on setting up a Direct Connect connection to AWS. But they don?t require or have the facility to accommodate a 1Gbps connection. How can they achieve a sub 1 G connection? Choose 2 answers from the options given below.(Select 2answers)A) They can consider contacting an AWS(Amazon Web Service) Partner for a Hosted ConnectionB) They can consider contacting an AWS(Amazon Web Service) Partner for a Hosted Virtual InterfaceC) If they have a parent AWS(Amazon Web Service) Account which can accommodate a 1 G connection. look at having a Hosted Virtual InterfaceD) If they have a parent AWS(Amazon Web Service) Account which can accommodate a 1 G connection, look at having a Hosted Connection5. Your company has the requirement of connecting their on-premise location to an AWS(Amazon Web Service) VPC. The On-premise servers should have the capabilities of resolving custom DNS domain names in the VPC. The Instances in the VPC need to have the ability to resolve the DNS names of the on-premise servers. How can you achieve this?A) Setup a DNS forwarder In your VPC. Ensure the DNS forwarder points to the P address of the VPN tunnel. Change the Option Set for the VPC for the IP address of the DNS forwarder. Configure a DNS forwarder in the Onp remise locationB) Setup a DNS forwarder in your VPC. Ensure the DNS forwarder points to the Name server for the Route 53 hosted zone. Also ensure the forwarder is configured with the on-premise DNS server, Change the Option Set for the VPC for the lP address of the DNS forwarder. Configure a DNS forwarder in the On-premise locationC) Setup a DNS forwarder in your VPC. Ensure the DNS forwarder points to the Amazon DNS resolver for the VPC. Also ensure the forwarder is configured with the on-premise DNS server. Change the Option Set for the VPC for the IP address of the DNS forwarder, Configure a DNS forwarder in the On-premise location.D) Setup a DNS forwarder in your VPC. Ensure the DNS forwarder points to the IP address of the On-premise DNS server. Change the Option Set for the VPC for the IP address of the DNS forwarder. Configure a DNS forwarder in the On-premise location Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: A,BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: A,CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification - Part 39
Questions 1. Which solution provides the FASTEST application response times to frequently accessed data to users in multiple AWS Regions?A) A. AWS CloudTrail across multiple Availability Zones B) B. Amazon CloudFront to edge locationsC) C. AWS CloudFormation in multiple regionsD) D. A virtual private gateway over AWS Direct Connect2. Which AWS service provides a self-service portal for on-demand access to AWS compliance reports?A) A. AWS Config B) B. AWS Certificate ManagerC) C. Amazon InspectorD) D. AWS Artifact3. Which of the following AWS services can be used to run a self-managed database?A) A. Amazon Route 53 B) B. AWS X-RayC) C. AWS SnowmobileD) D. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)4. What exclusive benefit is provided to users with Enterprise Support?A) A. Access to a Technical Project Manager B) B. Access to a Technical Account ManagerC) C. Access to a Cloud Support EngineerD) D. Access to a Solutions Architect5. How can a user protect against AWS service disruptions if a natural disaster affects an entire geographic area?A) A. Deploy applications across multiple Availability Zones within an AWS Region. B) B. Use a hybrid cloud computing deployment model within the geographic area.C) C. Deploy applications across multiple AWS Regions.D) D. Store application artifacts using AWS Artifact and replicate them across multiple AWS Regions. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: You can deliver content and decrease end-user latency of your web application using Amazon CloudFront. CloudFront speeds up content delivery by leveraging its global network of data centers, known as edge locations, to reduce delivery time by caching your content close to your end users. CloudFront fetches your content from an origin, such as an Amazon S3 bucket, an Amazon EC2 instance, an Amazon Elastic Load Balancing load balancer or your own web server, when it's not already in an edge location. CloudFront can be used to deliver your entire website or application, including dynamic, static, streaming, and interactive content.https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/deliver-content-faster/2. Right Answer: DExplanation: AWS Artifact is your go-to, central resource for compliance-related information that matters to you. It provides on-demand access to AWS' security and compliance reports and select online agreements. Reports available in AWS Artifact include our Service Organization Control (SOC) reports, Payment Card Industry (PCI) reports, and certifications from accreditation bodies across geographies and compliance verticals that validate the implementation and operating effectiveness of AWS security controls. Agreements available in AWS Artifact include the Business Associate Addendum (BAA) and the Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA).https://aws.amazon.com/artifact/3. Right Answer: DExplanation: https://severalnines.com/news/aws-users-prefer-self-managed-databases4. Right Answer: BExplanation: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/plans/enterprise/5. Right Answer: CExplanation: An AWS Region is a geographic location where AWS provides multiple, physically separated and isolated Availability Zones which are connected with low latency, high throughput, and highly redundant networking.https://aws.amazon.com/s3/faqs/ .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Security - Specialty - Part 42
Questions 1. You have setup a set of applications across 2 VPC?s. You have also setup VPC Peering. The applications are still not able to communicate across the Peering connection. Which network troubleshooting steps should be taken to resolve the issue? Please select:A) Ensure the applications are hosted in a public subnetB) Check to see if the VPC has an Internet gateway attached.C) Check to see if the VPC has a NAT gateway attachedD) Check the Route tables for the VPCs2. You are deivising a policy to allow users to have the ability to access objects in a bucket called appbucket.You define the below custom bucket policy{ 'ID': 'Policy1502987489630','Version': '2012-10-17','Statement': [{'Sid': 'Stmt1502987487640','Action': ['s3:GetObject','s3:GetObjectVersion'],'Effect': 'Allow','Resource': 'arn:aws:s3:::appbucket','Principal': '*'}]}But when you try to apply the policy you get the error'Action does not apply to any resource(s) in statement. What should be done to rectify the errorA) Verify that the policy has the same name as the bucket name. If not, make it the same.B) Change the IAM permissions by applying PutBucketPolicy permissions.C) Create the bucket 'appbucket' and then apply the policy. (Incorrect)D) Change the Resource section to 'arn:aws:s3:::appbucket/*'.3. Your company has mandated that all calls to the AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS service be recorded. How can this be achieved?A) Use Cloudwatch metrics (Incorrect)B) Enable a trail in CloudtrailC) Enable logging on the KMS serviceD) Enable Cloudwatch logs4. A security team is creating a response plan in the event an employee executes unauthorized actions on AWS(Amazon Web Service) infrastructure. They want to include steps to determine if the employee's IAM permissions changed as part of the incident. What steps should the team document In the plan?A) Use Trusted Advisor to examine the employee's PAM permissions prior to the incident and compare them to the employee's current IAM permissions.B) Use Made to examine the employee's IAM permissions prior to the incident and compare them to the employee's current IAM permissions.C) Use Cloud Trail to examine the employee's IAM permissions prior to the incident and compare them to the employee's current IAM permissionsD) Use AWS(Amazon Web Service) Configure to examine the employee's IAM permissions prior to the incident and compare them to the employee's current PAM permissions.5. You have an instance setup in a test environment in AWS. You installed the required application and the promoted the server to a production environment. Your IT Security team has advised that there maybe traffic flowing in from an unknown IP address to port 22. How can this be mitigated immediately?A) Remove the rule for incoming traffic on port 22 for the Security GroupB) Shutdown the instanceC) Change the AMI for the instanceD) Change the Instance type for the Instance Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: When you define access to objects in a bucket, you need to ensure that you specify to which objects in the bucket access needs to be given to. In this case , the * can be used to assign the permission to all objects in the bucket. Option A is invalid because the right permissions are already provided as per the question requirement Option B is invalid because it is not necessary that the policy has the same name as the bucket Option D is invalid because this should be the default flow for applying the policy For more information on bucket policies please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/example-bucket-policies.html3. Right Answer: BExplanation: The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation states the following AWS KMS is integrated with CloudTrail, a service that captures API calls made by or on behalf of AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS in your AWS(Amazon Web Service) account and delivers the log files to an Amazon S3 bucket that you specify. CloudTrail captures API calls from the AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS console or from the AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS API. Using the information collected by CloudTrail, you can determine what request was made, the source IP address from which the request was made, who made the request, when it was made, and so on. Option A is invalid because logging is not possible in the KMS service Option C and D are invalid because Cloudwatch cannot be used to monitor API calls For more information on logging using Cloudtrail please visit the below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/logging-using-cloudtrail.html4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 122
Questions 1. Which of the following PBX feature provides the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user of an important message?A) Account CodesB) Access CodesC) OverrideD) Tenanting2. Which of the following PBX feature allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become available?A) Automatic Call distributionB) Call forwardingC) TenantingD) Voice mail3. Which of the following PBX feature supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension?A) Call forwardingB) Privacy releaseC) TenantingD) Voice mail4. Which of the following option INCORRECTLY describes PBX feature?A) Voice mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.B) Tenanting-Provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important messageC) Automatic Call Distribution - Allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableD) Diagnostics -Allows for bypassing normal call restriction procedures5. Which of the following technique is NOT used by a preacher against a Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?A) EavesdroppingB) Illegal call forwardingC) Forwarding a user to an unused or disabled numberD) SYN Flood Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Override feature of PBS provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important message.For CISA exam you should know below mentioned PBS features and RisksSystem Features -Description -Risk -Automatic Call distribution -Allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableTapping and control of traffic -Call forwarding -Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionUser tracking -Account codes -Used to:Track calls made by certain people or for certain projects for appropriate billingDial-In system access (user dials from outside and gain access to normal feature of the PBX)Changing the user class of service so a user can access a different set of features (i.e. the override feature)Fraud, user tracking, non authorized featuresAccess Codes -Key for access to specific feature from the part of users with simple instruments, i.e. traditional analog phones.Non-authorized features -Silent Monitoring -Silently monitors other calls -Eavesdropping -Conferencing -Allows for conversation among several usersEavesdropping, by adding unwanted/unknown parties to a conference override(intrude)Provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important messageEavesdropping -Auto-answer -Allows an instrument to automatically go when called usually gives an auditor or visible warning which can easily turned offGaining information not normally available, for various purposeTenanting -Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcIllegal usage, fraud, eavesdroppingVoice mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.Disclosure or destruction of all messages of a user when that user's password in known or discovered by an intruder, disabling of the voice mail system and even the entire switch by lengthy messages or embedded codes, illegal access to external lines.Privacy release -Supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension. Privacy release disables the security by allowing devices to connect to an extension already in use.Eavesdropping -No busy extension -Allows calls to an in-use extension to be added to a conference when that extension is on conference and already off-hookEavesdropping a conference in progressDiagnostics -Allows for bypassing normal call restriction procedures. This kind of diagnostic is sometimes available from any connected device. It is a separate feature, in addition to the normal maintenance terminal or attendant diagnosticsFraud and illegal usage -Camp-on or call waiting -When activated, sends a visual audible warning to an off-hook instrument that is receiving another call. Another option of this feature is to conference with the camped-on or call waitingMaking the called individual a party to a conference without knowing it.Dedicated connections -Connections made through the PBX without using the normal dialing sequences. It can be used to create hot-lines between devices i.e. one rings when the other goes off-hook. It is also used for data connections between devices and the central processing facilityEavesdropping on a line -The following were incorrect answers:Account Codes - that are used to:Track calls made by certain people or for certain projects for appropriate billingDial-In system access (user dials from outside and gain access to normal feature of the PBX)Changing the user class of service so a user can access a different set of features (i.e. the override feature)Access Codes - Key for access to specific feature from the part of users with simple instruments, i.e. traditional analog phones.Tenanting - Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcThe following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3582. Right Answer: AExplanation: Automatic Call distribution allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableFor your exam you should know below mentioned PBX features and Risks:System Features -Description -Risk -Automatic Call distribution -Allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableTapping and control of traffic -Call forwarding -Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionUser tracking -Account codes -Used to:Track calls made by certain people or for certain projects for appropriate billingDial-In system access (user dials from outside and gain access to normal feature of the PBX)Changing the user class of service so a user can access a different set of features (i.e. the override feature)Fraud, user tracking, non authorized featuresAccess Codes -Key for access to specific feature from the part of users with simple instruments, i.e. traditional analog phones.Non-authorized features -Silent Monitoring -Silently monitors other calls -Eavesdropping -Conferencing -Allows for conversation among several usersEavesdropping, by adding unwanted/unknown parties to a conference override(intrude)Provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important messageEavesdropping -Auto-answer -Allows an instrument to automatically go when called usually gives an auditor or visible warning which can easily turned offGaining information not normally available, for various purposeTenanting -Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcIllegal usage, fraud, eavesdroppingVoice mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.Disclosure or destruction of all messages of a user when that user's password in known or discovered by an intruder, disabling of the voice mail system and even the entire switch by lengthy messages or embedded codes, illegal access to external lines.Privacy release -Supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension. Privacy release disables the security by allowing devices to connect to an extension already in use.Eavesdropping -No busy extension -Allows calls to an in-use extension to be added to a conference when that extension is on conference and already off-hookEavesdropping a conference in progressDiagnostics -Allows for bypassing normal call restriction procedures. This kind of diagnostic is sometimes available from any connected device. It is a separate feature, in addition to the normal maintenance terminal or attendant diagnosticsFraud and illegal usage -Camp-on or call waiting -When activated, sends a visual audible warning to an off-hook instrument that is receiving another call. Another option of this feature is to conference with the camped-on or call waitingMaking the called individual a party to a conference without knowing it.Dedicated connections -Connections made through the PBX without using the normal dialing sequences. It can be used to create hot-lines between devices i.e. one rings when the other goes off-hook. It is also used for data connections between devices and the central processing facilityEavesdropping on a line -The following were incorrect answers:Call forwarding - Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionTenanting - Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcVoice Mail - Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3583. Right Answer: BExplanation: Privacy release supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension.For your exam you should know below mentioned PBX features and Risks:System Features -Description -Risk -Automatic Call distribution -Allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableTapping and control of traffic -Call forwarding -Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionUser tracking -Account codes -Used to:Track calls made by certain people or for certain projects for appropriate billingDial-In system access (user dials from outside and gain access to normal feature of the PBX)Changing the user class of service so a user can access a different set of features (i.e. the override feature)Fraud, user tracking, non authorized featuresAccess Codes -Key for access to specific feature from the part of users with simple instruments, i.e. traditional analog phones.Non-authorized features -Silent Monitoring -Silently monitors other calls -Eavesdropping -Conferencing -Allows for conversation among several usersEavesdropping, by adding unwanted/unknown parties to a conference override(intrude)Provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important messageEavesdropping -Auto-answer -Allows an instrument to automatically go when called usually gives an auditor or visible warning which can easily turned offGaining information not normally available, for various purposeTenanting -Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcIllegal usage, fraud, eavesdroppingVoice mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.Disclosure or destruction of all messages of a user when that user's password in known or discovered by an intruder, disabling of the voice mail system and even the entire switch by lengthy messages or embedded codes, illegal access to external lines.Privacy release -Supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension. Privacy release disables the security by allowing devices to connect to an extension already in use.Eavesdropping -No busy extension -Allows calls to an in-use extension to be added to a conference when that extension is on conference and already off-hookEavesdropping a conference in progressDiagnostics -Allows for bypassing normal call restriction procedures. This kind of diagnostic is sometimes available from any connected device. It is a separate feature, in addition to the normal maintenance terminal or attendant diagnosticsFraud and illegal usage -Camp-on or call waiting -When activated, sends a visual audible warning to an off-hook instrument that is receiving another call. Another option of this feature is to conference with the camped-on or call waitingMaking the called individual a party to a conference without knowing it.Dedicated connections -Connections made through the PBX without using the normal dialing sequences. It can be used to create hot-lines between devices i.e. one rings when the other goes off-hook. It is also used for data connections between devices and the central processing facilityEavesdropping on a line -The following were incorrect answers:Call forwarding - Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionTenanting -Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcVoice Mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number3584. Right Answer: BExplanation: The word INCORRECTLY was the keyword used in the question. You need to find out the incorrectly described PBX feature from given options. The Tenanting feature is incorrectly described.Tenanting limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcFor your exam you should know below mentioned PBX features and Risks:System Features -Description -Risk -Automatic Call distribution -Allows a PBX to be configured so that incoming calls are distributed to the next available agent or placed on-hold until one become availableTapping and control of traffic -Call forwarding -Allow specifying an alternate number to which calls will be forwarded based on certain conditionUser tracking -Account codes -Used to:Track calls made by certain people or for certain projects for appropriate billingDial-In system access (user dials from outside and gain access to normal feature of the PBX)Changing the user class of service so a user can access a different set of features (i.e. the override feature)Fraud, user tracking, non authorized featuresAccess Codes -Key for access to specific feature from the part of users with simple instruments, i.e. traditional analog phones.Non-authorized features -Silent Monitoring -Silently monitors other calls -Eavesdropping -Conferencing -Allows for conversation among several usersEavesdropping, by adding unwanted/unknown parties to a conference override(intrude)Provides for the possibility to break into a busy line to inform another user an important messageEavesdropping -Auto-answer -Allows an instrument to automatically go when called usually gives an auditor or visible warning which can easily turned offGaining information not normally available, for various purposeTenanting -Limits system user access to only those users who belong to the same tenant group '' useful when one company leases out part of its building to other companies and tenants share an attendant, trunk lines,etcIllegal usage, fraud, eavesdroppingVoice mail -Stores messages centrally and '' by using a password '' allows for retrieval from inside or outside lines.Disclosure or destruction of all messages of a user when that user's password in known or discovered by an intruder, disabling of the voice mail system and even the entire switch by lengthy messages or embedded codes, illegal access to external lines.Privacy release -Supports shared extensions among several devices, ensuring that only one device at a time can use an extension. Privacy release disables the security by allowing devices to connect to an extension already in use.Eavesdropping -No busy extension -Allows calls to an in-use extension to be added to a conference when that extension is on conference and already off-hookEavesdropping a conference in progressDiagnostics -Allows for bypassing normal call restriction procedures. This kind of diagnostic is sometimes available from any connected device. It is a separate feature, in addition to the normal maintenance terminal or attendant diagnosticsFraud and illegal usage -Camp-on or call waiting -When activated, sends a visual audible warning to an off-hook instrument that is receiving another call. Another option of this feature is to conference with the camped-on or call waitingMaking the called individual a party to a conference without knowing it.Dedicated connections -Connections made through the PBX without using the normal dialing sequences. It can be used to create hot-lines between devices i.e. one rings when the other goes off-hook. It is also used for data connections between devices and the central processing facilityEavesdropping on a line -The following were incorrect answers:The other options presented correctly describes PBX features thus not the right choice.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number3585. Right Answer: DExplanation: The word NOT the keyword used in the question. You need to find out the technique which preacher do not use to exploit PBX.SYN Flood -Sends a flood of TCP/SYN packets with forged sender address, causing half-open connections and saturates available connection capacity on the target machine.For CISA Exam you should know below mentioned techniques used by preacher for illegal purpose of PBX.Eavesdropping on conversation, without the other parties being aware of itEavesdropping on conference callIllegal forwarding calls from specific equipment to remote numbersForwarding a user to an unused or disabled number, thereby making it unreachable by external calls.The following were incorrect answers:The other options presented correctly describes the techniques used preacher for illegal purpose of PBX.The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 357 .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 378
Questions 1. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk when an application uses individual end user accounts to access the underlying database?A) User accounts may remain active after a termination.B) Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process.C) Application may not capture a complete audit trail.D) Users may be able to circumvent application controls.2. An IS auditor is assessing the results of an organization's post-implementation review of a newly developed information system. Which of the following should be the auditor's MAIN focus?A) The procurement contract has been closed.B) Lessons learned have been identified.C) The disaster recovery plan has been updated.D) Benefits realization analysis has been completed.3. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices?A) Perform network reviews.B) Implement network access control.C) Implement outbound firewall rules.D) Review access control lists.4. Which of the following should be an IS auditor's PRIMARY focus when developing a risk-based IS audit program?A) Business plansB) Business processesC) IT strategic plansD) Portfolio management5. During a follow-up audit, an IS auditor discovers that a recommendation has not been implemented. However, the auditee has implemented a manual workaround that addresses the identified risk, through far less efficiency than the recommended action would. Which of the following would be the auditor's BEST course of action?A) Notify management that the risk has been addressed and take no further action.B) Escalate the remaining issue for further discussion and resolution.C) Note that the risk has been addressed and notify management of the inefficiency.D) Insist to management that the original recommendation be implemented. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISM—Certified Information Security Manager - Part 238
Questions 1. When making an outsourcing decision, which of the following functions is MOST important to retain within the organization?A) Security managementB) Incident responseC) Risk assessmentD) Security governance2. Which of the following metrics is MOST useful to demonstrate the effectiveness of an incident response plan?A) Average time to resolve an incidentB) Total number of reported incidentsC) Total number of incident responsesD) Average time to respond to an incident3. In a resource-restricted security program, which of the following approaches will provide the BEST use of the limited resources?A) Cross-trainingB) Risk avoidanceC) Risk prioritizationD) Threat management4. During an emergency security incident, which of the following would MOST likely predict the worst-case scenario?A) Cost-benefit analysis reportB) Business impact analysis (BIA) reportC) Risk assessment reportD) Vulnerability assessment report5. Which of the following would be MOST important to consider when implementing security settings for a new system?A) Results from internal and external auditsB) Government regulations and related penaltiesC) Business objectives and related IT riskD) Industry best practices applicable to the business Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: AExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia A+ 1002 2023 Questions and answer - Part 56
Questions 1. A technician has successfully completed a gpupdate from a CMD box of a user-s PC and is ready to move to:(Select 2answers)A) A. View the CMD process in Task ManagerB) B. Type EXIT at the command prompt and press EnterC) C. Minimize the CMD box to the taskbarD) D. Click the -x in the top right of the CMD windowE) E. Select Switch User on the PC2. A customer has made several trouble calls to the help desk and is very irate. The technician that receives the call has learned that the issue has not yet been resolved. The technician politely asks the customer to explain the issue, and learns that the problem needs to be escalated. Which of the following should the technician do once the problem has been escalated?A) A. Communicate status with customer and ensure successful call transferB) B. Remain on the line until the issue is resolvedC) C. Inform the customer that the issue cannot be resolved at this levelD) D. Tell customer that patience will be needed3. A user-s smartphone runs very slow at the end of the day. When the user restarts the phone in the morning, it runs at its normal speed. Which of the following should be done throughout the day to BEST resolve this issue?A) A. Reset to the smartphone to factory default.B) B. Uninstall any unused apps.C) C. Close all running apps.D) D. Charge the smartphone.4. A technician is tasked with installing Windows on numerous network PCs. Which of the following is the QUICKEST method for getting a standard configuration to the PCs?A) A. Prebuilt image using PXEB) B. Single solid state/flash drive with answer fileC) C. Hot swappable image driveD) D. Internal hard drive partition with the image5. A user is configuring the email settings on a smartphone. Which of the following configurations will allow the user to synchronize email from multiple devices?A) A. IMAPB) B. S/MIMEC) C. POP3D) D. SMTP Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: B,DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia Linux + 2023 Questions and answer - Part 6
Questions 1. Which of the following keywords can be used in the file /etc/resolv.conf? (Choose TWO correct answers.)(Select 2answers)A) A. substituteB) B. nameserverC) C. searchD) D. lookupE) E. method2. On a regular users workstation the route command takes a long time before printing out the routing table. Which of the following errors does that indicate?A) A. The local routing information may be corrupted and must be re-validated using a routing protocol.B) B. One of the routers in the routing table is not available which causes the automatic router failure detection mechanism (ARF-D) to wait for a timeout.C) C. There may accidentally be more than one default router in which case a default router election has to be done on the network in order to choose one router as the default.D) D. DNS resolution may not be working as route by default tries to resolve names of routers and destinations and may run into a timeout.3. Which configuration file would be edited to change the default options for outbound SSH sessions?A) A. /etc/ssh/sshd_configB) B. /etc/ssh/sshC) C. /etc/ssh/clientD) D. /etc/ssh/ssh_configE) E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client4. Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?A) A. tcpdB) B. inetdC) C. fingerdD) D. mountdE) E. xinetd5. Which command is used to set restrictions on the size of a core file that is created for a user when a program crashes?A) A. coreB) B. edquotaC) C. ulimitD) D. quota Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: B,CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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