Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 127
Questions 1. Which of the following attack is against computer network and involves fragmented or invalid ICMP packets sent to the target?A) Nuke attackB) Brute force attackC) Buffer overflowD) Pulsing Zombie2. Which of the following attack involves sending forged ICMP Echo Request packets to the broadcast address on multiple gateways in order to illicit responses from the computers behind the gateway where they all respond back with ICMP Echo Reply packets to the source IP address of the ICMP Echo Request packets?A) Reflected attackB) Brute force attackC) Buffer overflowD) Pulsing Zombie3. During an IS audit, auditor has observed that authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions and there is a possibility to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. Which of the following technique an attacker could user to force authorization step before authentication?A) EavesdroppingB) Traffic analysisC) MasqueradingD) Race Condition4. Which of the following attack is also known as Time of Check(TOC)/Time of Use(TOU)?A) EavesdroppingB) Traffic analysisC) MasqueradingD) Race Condition5. Which of the following attack occurs when a malicious action is performed by invoking the operating system to execute a particular system call?A) EavesdroppingB) Traffic analysisC) MasqueradingD) Interrupt attack Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: A Nuke attack is an old denial-of-service attack against computer networks consisting of fragmented or otherwise invalid ICMP packets sent to the target, achieved by using a modified ping utility to repeatedly send this corrupt data, thus slowing down the affected computer until it comes to a complete stop.A specific example of a nuke attack that gained some prominence is the Win Nuke, which exploited the vulnerability in the NetBIOS handler in Windows 95. A string of out-of-band data was sent to TCP port 139 of the victim's machine, causing it to lock up and display a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD).The following answers are incorrect:Brute force attack - Brute force (also known as brute force cracking) is a trial and error method used by application programs to decode encrypted data such as passwords or Data Encryption Standard (DES) keys, through exhaustive effort (using brute force) rather than employing intellectual strategies. Just as a criminal might break into, or 'crack' a safe by trying many possible combinations, a brute force cracking application proceeds through all possible combinations of legal characters in sequence. Brute force is considered to be an infallible, although time-consuming, approach.Buffer overflow - A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity.Pulsing Zombie - A Dos attack in which a network is subjected to hostile pinging by different attacker computer over an extended time period.Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3222. Right Answer: AExplanation: Reflected attack involves sending forged requests to a large number of computers that will reply to the requests. The source IP address is spoofed to that of the targeted victim, causing replies to flood.A distributed denial of service attack may involve sending forged requests of some type to a very large number of computers that will reply to the requests. UsingInternet Protocol address spoofing, the source address is set to that of the targeted victim, which means all the replies will go to (and flood) the target. (This reflected attack form is sometimes called a 'DRDOS'.ICMP Echo Request attacks (Smurf Attack) can be considered one form of reflected attack, as the flooding host(s) send Echo Requests to the broadcast addresses of mix-configured networks, thereby enticing hosts to send Echo Reply packets to the victim. Some early DDoS programs implemented a distributed form of this attack.In the surf attack, the attacker sends an ICMP ECHO REQUEST packet with a spoofed source address to a victim's network broadcast address. This means that each system on the victim's subnet receives an ICMP ECHO REQUEST packet. Each system then replies to that request with an ICMP ECHO REPLY packet to the spoof address provided in the packets''which is the victim's address. All of these response packets go to the victim system and overwhelm it because it is being bombarded with packets it does not necessarily know how to process. The victim system may freeze, crash, or reboot. The Smurf attack is illustrated inFigure below:surf-attackThe following answers are incorrect:Brute force attack - Brute force (also known as brute force cracking) is a trial and error method used by application programs to decode encrypted data such as passwords or Data Encryption Standard (DES) keys, through exhaustive effort (using brute force) rather than employing intellectual strategies. Just as a criminal might break into, or 'crack' a safe by trying many possible combinations, a brute force cracking application proceeds through all possible combinations of legal characters in sequence. Brute force is considered to be an infallible, although time-consuming, approach.Buffer overflow - A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity.Pulsing Zombie - A Dos attack in which a network is subjected to hostile pinging by different attacker computer over an extended time period.Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 3223. Right Answer: DExplanation: A race condition is when processes carry out their tasks on a shared resource in an incorrect order. A race condition is possible when two or more processes use a shared resource, as in data within a variable. It is important that the processes carry out their functionality in the correct sequence. If process 2 carried out its task on the data before process 1, the result will be much different than if process1 carried out its tasks on the data before process 2.In software, when the authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions, there is a possibility an attacker could use a race condition to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. This would be a flaw in the software that the attacker has figured out how to exploit. A race condition occurs when two or more processes use the same resource and the sequences of steps within the software can be carried out in an improper order, something that can drastically affect the output. So, an attacker can force the authorization step to take place before the authentication step and gain unauthorized access to a resource.The following answers are incorrect:Eavesdropping - is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black's Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that 'eavesdroppers seldom hear anything good of themselves...eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them.'Traffic analysis - is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is a concern in computer security.Masquerading - A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack.Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process.The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they've managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they've gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be harmful.Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 324Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 66CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 1614. Right Answer: DExplanation: A Race Condition attack is also known as Time of Check(TOC)/Time of Use(TOU).A race condition is when processes carry out their tasks on a shared resource in an incorrect order. A race condition is possible when two or more processes use a shared resource, as in data within a variable. It is important that the processes carry out their functionality in the correct sequence. If process 2 carried out its task on the data before process 1, the result will be much different than if process1 carried out its tasks on the data before process 2.In software, when the authentication and authorization steps are split into two functions, there is a possibility an attacker could use a race condition to force the authorization step to be completed before the authentication step. This would be a flaw in the software that the attacker has figured out how to exploit. A race condition occurs when two or more processes use the same resource and the sequences of steps within the software can be carried out in an improper order, something that can drastically affect the output. So, an attacker can force the authorization step to take place before the authentication step and gain unauthorized access to a resource.The following answers are incorrect:Eavesdropping - is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black's Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that 'eavesdroppers seldom hear anything good of themselves...eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them.'Traffic analysis - is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is a concern in computer security.Masquerading - A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack.Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process.The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they've managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they've gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be harmful.Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 324Official ISC2 guide to CISSP CBK 3rd Edition Page number 66CISSP All-In-One Exam guide 6th Edition Page Number 1615. Right Answer: DExplanation: An Interrupt attack occurs when a malicious action is performed by invoking the operating system to execute a particular system call.Example: A boot sector virus typically issues an interrupt to execute a write to the boot sector.The following answers are incorrect:Eavesdropping - is the act of secretly listening to the private conversation of others without their consent, as defined by Black's Law Dictionary. This is commonly thought to be unethical and there is an old adage that 'eavesdroppers seldom hear anything good of themselves...eavesdroppers always try to listen to matters that concern them.'Traffic analysis - is the process of intercepting and examining messages in order to deduce information from patterns in communication. It can be performed even when the messages are encrypted and cannot be decrypted. In general, the greater the number of messages observed, or even intercepted and stored, the more can be inferred from the traffic. Traffic analysis can be performed in the context of military intelligence, counter-intelligence, or pattern-of-life analysis, and is a concern in computer security.Masquerading - A masquerade attack is an attack that uses a fake identity, such as a network identity, to gain unauthorized access to personal computer information through legitimate access identification. If an authorization process is not fully protected, it can become extremely vulnerable to a masquerade attack.Masquerade attacks can be perpetrated using stolen passwords and logons, by locating gaps in programs, or by finding a way around the authentication process.The attack can be triggered either by someone within the organization or by an outsider if the organization is connected to a public network. The amount of access masquerade attackers get depends on the level of authorization they've managed to attain. As such, masquerade attackers can have a full smorgasbord of cyber crime opportunities if they've gained the highest access authority to a business organization. Personal attacks, although less common, can also be harmful.Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:CISA review manual 2014 Page number 322 .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 383
Questions 1. What is the MOST difficult aspect of access control in a multiplatform, multiple-site client/server environment?A) Creating new user IDs valid only on a few hostsB) Maintaining consistency throughout all platformsC) Restricting a local user to necessary resources on a local platformD) Restricting a local user to necessary resources on the host server2. Which of the following cloud deployment models would BEST meet the needs of a startup software development organization with limited initial capital?A) PrivateB) PublicC) CommunityD) Hybrid3. An IS auditor is reviewing documentation of application systems change control and identifies several patches that were not tested before being put into production. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk from this situation?A) Developer access to productionB) Lack of system integrityC) Outdated system documentationD) Loss of application support4. Which of the following would BEST help ensure information security is effective following the outsourcing of network operations?A) Test security controls periodically.B) Review security key performance indicators (KPIs).C) Establish security service level agreements (SLAs).D) Appoint a security service delivery monitoring manager.5. As part of a mergers and acquisitions activity, an acquiring organization wants to consolidate data and system from the organization being acquired into existing systems. To ensure the data is relevant, the acquiring organization should:A) obtain data quality software.B) define data quality requirements based on business needs.C) automate the process of data collection and cleaning.D) implement a data warehouse solution. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISM—Certified Information Security Manager - Part 243
Questions 1. What is the MOST important factor for determining prioritization of incident response?A) Service level agreements (SLAs) pertaining to the impacted systemsB) The potential impact to the businessC) The time to restore the impacted systemsD) The availability of specialized technical staff2. Relying on which of the following methods when detecting new threats using IDS should be of MOST concern?A) Statistical pattern recognitionB) Attack signaturesC) Heuristic analysisD) Traffic analysis3. When developing a classification method for incidents, the categories MUST be:A) quantitative defined.B) regularly reviewed.C) specific to situations.D) assigned to incident handlers.4. Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of an incident communication plan?A) To convey information about the incident to those affected by itB) To prevent reputational damage to the organizationC) To prevent unannounced visits from the media during crisisD) To fulfill regulatory requirements for incident response5. Which of the following is MOST -helpful to management in determining whether risks are within an organization's tolerance level?A) Audit findingsB) Heat mapC) Penetration test resultsD) Maturity level Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: AExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia A+ 1002 2023 Questions and answer - Part 61
Questions 1. Which of the following Windows OS capabilities allows modern Windows versions to run applications written for older versions natively?A) A. Microsoft Virtual PCB) B. Compatibility modeC) C. Hyper-VD) D. Virtual XP mode2. A technician has been tasked with loading the operating system on every PC with a blank hard drive on a network. The technician wishes to install the operating system with minimal physical interaction with the PCs.Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this?A) A. Clone the operating system from an image onto optical media.B) B. Use the original software media to load the operation system on every PC.C) C. Set up a central image that the PCs can load from a PXE boot.D) D. Create an image and copy it from a USB drive using an unattended answer file.3. A user recently installed a new video driver on a PC but now it will not boot. Which of the following is the BEST option to correct the issue?A) A. Automated system recoveryB) B. Emergency repair disksC) C. FIXBOOTD) D. Safe mode4. An end user calls the company-s IT service desk to report an inability to open encrypted emails on a mobile device. Which of the following BEST represents a possible cause?A) A. A valid certificate suitable for S/MIME is not installed.B) B. Emails received by the user lack suitable digital signatures.C) C. SSL/TLS certificates stored on the device are expired.D) D. The sender did not have the addressee-s public certificate.5. Which of the following is a risk of implementing a BYOD policy?A) A. Introducing malware onto the networkB) B. DHCP may fail due to incompatibilityC) C. Different encryption technologyD) D. Higher risk of phishing attacks Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia Linux + 2023 Questions and answer - Part 11
Questions 1. Which of the following steps prevents a user from obtaining an interactive login session?A) A. Run the command chsh -s /bin/false with the user name.B) B. Set the UID for the user to 0.C) C. Remove the user from the group staff.D) D. Add the user to /etc/noaccess.E) E. Create a .nologin file in the user's home directory.2. Which character in the password field of /etc/passwd is used to indicate that the encrypted password is stored in /etc/shadow?A) A. *B) B. -C) C. sD) D. x3. Which of the following fields are available in both the global /etc/crontab file as well as in user-specific crontab files? (Select TWO correct answers)(Select 2answers)A) A. YearB) B. MinuteC) C. UsernameD) D. Command4. Which command can be used to delete a group from a Linux system?A) A. groupdelB) B. groupmodC) C. groupsD) D. groupedit5. What is the purpose of the iconv command?A) A. It converts bitmap images from one format to another such as PNG to JPEG.B) B. It verifies that the root directory tree complies to all conventions from the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS).C) C. It displays additional meta information from icon files ending in .ico.D) D. It changes the mode of an inode in the ext4 file system.E) E. It converts files from one character encoding to another. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: B,DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: EExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
ComptiA Security+ Certification Exam Questions and answer - Part 37
Questions 1. A penetration tester is conducting an assessment on Comptia.org and runs the following command from a coffee shop while connected to the public Internet: c: slookup -querytype=MX comptia.org Server: Unknown Address: 198.51.100.45 comptia.org MX preference=10,mail exchanger = 92.68.102.33 comptia.org MX preference=20,mail exchanger = exchg1.comptia.org exchg1.comptia.org internet address = 192.168.102.67 Which of the following should the penetration tester conclude about the command output?A) The public/private views on the Comptia.org DNS servers are misconfigured.B) Comptia.org is running an older mail server,which may be vulnerable to exploits.C) The DNS SPF records have not been updated for Comptia.org.D) 192.168.102.67 is a backup mail server that may be more vulnerable to attack.2. A security analyst has set up a network tap to monitor network traffic for vulnerabilities. Which of the following techniques would BEST describe the approach the analyst has taken?A) Passive vulnerability scanningB) Credentialed scanningC) Compliance scanningD) Port scanning3. A security administrator determined that users within the company are installing unapproved software. Company policy dictates that only certain applications may be installed or ran on the user's computers without exception. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent all unapproved software from running on the user's computer?A) Deploy antivirus software and configure it to detect and remove pirated softwareB) Prevent users from running as administrator so they cannot install software.C) Create an application whitelist and use OS controls to enforce itD) Configure the firewall to prevent the downloading of executable files4. A security administrator is creating a risk assessment with regard to how to harden internal communications in transit between servers. Which of the following should the administrator recommend in the report?A) Configure IPSec in transport mode.B) Configure a site-to-site tunnel.C) Configure server-based PKI certificates.D) Configure the GRE tunnel.5. A remote intruder wants to take inventory of a network so exploits can be researched. The intruder is looking for information about software versions on the network. Which of the following techniques is the intruder using?A) Virus scanningB) Packet sniffingC) Port scanningD) Banner grabbing Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Excel Certification Success Practice Questions 2023 - Part 5
Questions 1. Which of the following is NOT a type of conditional formatting in Excel?A) Color ScalesB) Icon SetsC) Text WrappingD) Data Bars2. Which of the following is NOT a type of data validation in Excel?A) TimeB) Text LengthC) DateD) Decimal3. What is the function used to count the number of cells in a range that meet a certain criteria?A) COUNTIFB) AVERAGEIFC) MAXIFD) SUMIF4. Which of the following is NOT a sorting option in Excel?A) Sort by FontB) Sort by FillC) Sort by Conditional FormattingD) Sort by Color5. Which of the following functions can be used to search for a value in a table and return a corresponding value in the same row?A) INDEXB) MATCHC) HLOOKUPD) VLOOKUP Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Text Wrapping is not a type of conditional formatting in Excel.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: Time is not a type of data validation in Excel.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: The COUNTIF function is used to count the number of cells in a range that meet a certain criteria.4. Right Answer: CExplanation: Sorting by Conditional Formatting is not an option in Excel.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: The VLOOKUP function can be used to search for a value in a table and return a corresponding value in the same row. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
APICS Certified Supply Chain Professional CSCPPractice Questions 2023 - Part 48
Questions 1. Which of the following product records is internationally recognized for providing detailed categorization and descriptions?A) Stock keeping unit (SKU)B) Electronic product code (EPC)C) Harmonized system classification codeD) Universal product code (UPC)2. When relocating production offshore, volatility in which of the following areas most likely would impact profitability without modifying product landed costs?A) Labor costsB) Currency exchange ratesC) Commodity pricesD) Product quality3. Variability in product design can best be reduced by:A) initiating 100% product inspection.B) outsourcing the design process.C) broadening design specifications.D) applying Six Sigma principles.4. Which of the following factors is most likely to slow the adoption of collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR)?A) The reluctance to share detailed informationB) The cost of electronic data interchange servicesC) The risk that changed processes will disrupt operationsD) The risk of security breaches5. A manufacturer experiences frequent changes in product technology and market preferences, resulting in new product introductions each year. Which of the following sourcing strategies would be most appropriate?A) Sole sourcingB) Multiple sourcingC) Long-term contractingD) Strategic partnering Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: Reference:http://www.wcoomd.org/-/media/wco/public/global/pdf/topics/nomenclature/activities-and-programmes/30-years-hs/hs-compendium.pdf?la=en2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Practice Test Questions 2023 - Part 8
Questions 1. An administrator is configuring a cluster for ILS and wants to limit the amount of entities that Cisco Unified Communications Manager can write to the database for data that is learned through ILS. Which service parameter is used to adjust this limit?A) Global Data Service Parameter LimitB) ILS Active Learned Object Upper LimitC) Imported Dial Plan Replication Database Object Lower LimitD) ILS Max Number of Learned Objects in Database2. A user reports that when they attempt to log out from the Cisco Extension Mobility service by pressing the Services button, they cannot log out. What is the most likely cause of this issue?A) The user device profile is not subscribed to the Cisco Extension Mobility serviceB) There might be a significant delay between the button being pressed and the Cisco Extension Mobility service recognizing it. It would be best to check network latencyC) The user device profile has not been assigned to the userD) The Cisco Extension Mobility service has not been configured on the phone3. When the services key is pressed Cisco Extension Mobility does not show up. What is the cause of the issue?A) Cisco Extension Mobility Service is not runningB) The URL configured for Cisco Extension Mobility is not correct.C) The phone is not subscribed to Cisco Extension Mobility ServiceD) Cisco Extension Mobility is not enabled in the Phone Configuration Window (Device > Phone)4. When locations-based Call Admission Control denies the call, which two masks can AAR apply when routing the call through the PSTN? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) called party transform maskB) external phone number maskC) enterrise alternate number maskD) AAR destination mask5. When configuring hunt groups, where do you add the individual directory numbers that will be part of the group?A) route groupB) line groupC) hunt listD) hunt pilot Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: B,DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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