Created by - Mary Smith
Automating Data Center Solutions PracticeTest Questions 2023 - Part 2
Questions 1. For which two programming languages does Cisco offer an SDK for Cisco pxGrid 1.0? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) CB) PythonC) PerlD) Java2. What are two advantages of Python virtual environments? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) Virtual environments permit non-administrative users to install packages.B) Virtual environments can move compiled modules between different platforms.C) The application code is run in an environment that is destroyed upon exitD) Virtual environments prevent packaging conflicts between multiple Python projects.3. Which two URI parameters are needed for the Cisco Stealthwatch Top Alarm Host v1 API? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) externalGeosB) tagIDC) tenantIdD) startAbsolute4. Which API is designed to give technology partners the ability to send security events from their platform/service/appliance within a mutual customer's environment to the Umbrella cloud for enforcement?A) Cisco Umbrella Enforcement APIB) Cisco Umbrella Management APIC) Cisco Umbrella Security Events APID) Cisco Umbrella Reporting API5. After changes are made to the Cisco Firepower Threat Defense configuration using the Cisco Firepower Device Manager API, what must be done to ensure that the new policy is activated?A) Submit a GET to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URI.B) Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/operational/deploy URIC) Submit a POST to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URD) Submit a PUT to the /api/fdm/latest/devicesettings/pushpolicy URI Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: A,DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: C,DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: B,CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS ANS-C00 Certified Advanced Networking Practice Questions 2023 - Part 12
Questions 1. A company currently hosts their architecture in the US region. They now need to duplicate that architecture to the Europe region and extend the application hosted on this architecture to the new region. In order to ensures that users across the globe get the same seamless experience from either setup, what needs to be done?A) Create an Application Elastic Load Balancer is setup to route traffic to both locationsB) Create a geolocation RouteS3 policy to route the policy based on the location.C) Create a classic Elastic Load Balancer is setup to route traffic to both locationsD) Create a weighted Route53 policy to route the policy based on the weight age for each location2. You have launched a couple of EC2 Instances in separate subnets. You are transferring data via the Public IP?s of the EC2 Instances. Both Instances are located in the same AZ. Instances are located in the us-east-i region. What would the data transfer charges?A) There are no data transfer charges for instances In the same AZB) There are no data transfer charges for instances in the same regionC) There will be a data transfer charge of $0.01/GBD) There is no data transfer charge for the internet3. Your company has a set of AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect connections. They want to aggregate the bandwidth of these connections to ensure that a large amount of data can be sent through the pipe. So a decision has been made to set up a link aggregation group. What are the factors that need to be considered when setting up the LAG group? Choose 2 answers from the options given below.A) You have to ensure that a VPN connection is also in place to attach to the LAG groupB) You have to ensure that all AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct connect connections terminate at different AWS(Amazon Web Service) endpointC) You have to ensure that all AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct connect connections terminate at the same AWS(Amazon Web Service) endpointD) You have to ensure that the existing AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct connect connections have the same bandwidth4. A company has a set of resources hosted in a VPC. They have acquired another company and they have their own set of resources hosted in AWS. The requirement now is to ensure that resources in the VPC of the parent company can access the resources In the VPC of the child company. What Is the best way to accomplish this with minimum costing involved?A) Establish a NAT gateway to establish communication across VPCsB) Use a VPN connection to peer both VPCSC) Use VPC Peering to peer both VPC?sD) Use a Direct Connect connection with a private V1F5. You?re in charge for setting up the AWS(Amazon Web Service) Direct Connect connection between your onpremise data center and an AWS(Amazon Web Service) Partner location. You need to ensure that your network can support the connection. What needs to be In check for this. Choose 3 answers from the options given below(Select 3answers)A) The network must have support for 802.1Q VLANB) Auto-negotiation for the port must be disabled for the network deviceC) The network device must support BGPD) The network device must support Static Routing Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: A,B,CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Certification - Part 29
Questions 1. Which of the following services provides on-demand access to AWS compliance reports?A) A. AWS IAM B) B. AWS ArtifactC) C. Amazon GuardDutyD) D. AWS KMS2. As part of the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following operational controls do users fully inherit from AWS?A) A. Security management of data centerB) B. Patch managementC) C. Configuration managementD) D. User and access management3. When comparing AWS Cloud with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership, which expenses must be considered? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Software development B) B. Project managementC) C. Storage hardwareD) D. Physical serversE) E. Antivirus software license4. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the customer? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Maintaining the underlying Amazon EC2 hardware. B) B. Managing the VPC network access control lists.C) C. Encrypting data in transit and at rest.D) D. Replacing failed hard disk drives.E) E. Deploying hardware in different Availability Zones.5. Which scenarios represent the concept of elasticity on AWS? (Choose two.)(Select 2answers)A) A. Scaling the number of Amazon EC2 instances based on traffic. B) B. Resizing Amazon RDS instances as business needs change.C) C. Automatically directing traffic to less-utilized Amazon EC2 instances.D) D. Using AWS compliance documents to accelerate the compliance process.E) E. Having the ability to create and govern environments using code. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: AWS Artifact is your go-to, central resource for compliance-related information that matters to you. It provides on-demand access to AWS' security and compliance reports and select online agreements. Reports available in AWS Artifact include our Service Organization Control (SOC) reports, Payment Card Industry (PCI) reports, and certifications from accreditation bodies across geographies and compliance verticals that validate the implementation and operating effectiveness of AWS security controls. Agreements available in AWS Artifact include the Business Associate Addendum (BAA) and the Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA).https://aws.amazon.com/artifact/2. Right Answer: AExplanation: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/shared-responsibility-model/3. Right Answer: C,DExplanation: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/the-new-aws-tco-calculator/4. Right Answer: B,CExplanation: The hardware related jobs is the prime responsibility of AWS. VPC network access control lists is something a customer has to do himself to secure the applications. Encrypting data in transit and at rest is a shared responsibility in which AWS plays a part. All hardware related jobs have nothing to do with the customer. https://dzone.com/articles/aws-shared-responsibility-model-cloud-security5. Right Answer: A,BExplanation: https://wa.aws.amazon.com/wat.concept.elasticity.en.html .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
AWS Certified Security - Specialty - Part 32
Questions 1. You have an Ec2 Instance in a private subnet which needs to access the KMS service. Which of the below methods can help fulfil this requirement, keeping security in perspectiveA) Attach a VPN connection to the VPCB) Use VPC Peering (Incorrect)C) Use a VPC endpointD) Attach an Internet gateway to the subnet2. You want to ensure that you keep a check on the Active EBS Volumes, Active snapshots and Elastic IP addresses you use so that you don't go beyond the service limit. Which of the below services can help in this regard?A) AWS CloudwatchB) AWS SNS (Incorrect)C) AWS Trusted AdvisorD) AWS EC23. You have a set of Customer keys created using the AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS service. These keys have been used for around 6 months. You are now trying to use the new KMS features for the existing set of key's but are not able to do so. What could be the reason for this.A) You have not explicitly given access via IAM usersB) You have not explicitly given access via the IAM policyC) You have not explicitly given access via the key policyD) You have not given access via the IAM roles4. You have just developed a new mobile application that handles analytics workloads on large scale datasets that are stored on Amazon Red shift. Consequently, the application needs to access Amazon Red shift tables. Which of the below methods would be the best, both practically and security-wise, to access the tables? Choose the correct answer from the options below ?A) Create a RedShift read-only access policy in lAM and embed those credentials in the application.B) Create an HSM client certificate in Red shift and authenticate using this certificate.C) Create an lAM user and generate encryption keys for that user. Create a policy for RedShift read-only access. Embed the keys in the application.D) Use roles that allow a web identity federated user to assume a role that allows access to the RedShift table by providing temporary credentials.5. A company continually generates sensitive records that it stores in an S3 bucket. All objects in the bucket are encrypted using SSE-KMS using one of the company's CMKs. Company compliance policies require that no more than one month of data be encrypted using the same encryption key.What solution below will meet the company's requirements?A) Trigger a Lambda function with a monthly CloudWatch event that creates a new CMK and updates the S3 bucket to use the new CMK.B) Configure the CMK to rotate the key material every month.C) Trigger a Lambda function with a monthly CloudWatch event that creates a new CMK, updates the S3 bucket to use the new CMK, and deletes the old CMK. (Incorrect)D) Trigger a Lambda function with a monthly CloudWatch event that rotates the key material in the CMK. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: The AWS(Amazon Web Service) Documentation mentions the following You can connect directly to AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS through a private endpoint in your VPC instead of connecting over the internet. When you use a VPC endpoint, communication between your VPC and AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS is conducted entirely within the AWS(Amazon Web Service) network. Option B is invalid because this could open threats from the internet Option C is invalid because this is normally used for communication between on-premise environments and AWS. Option D is invalid because this is normally used for communication between VPC's For more information on accessing KMS via an endpoint, please visit the following url https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/kms-vpc-endpoint.html2. Right Answer: CExplanation: Option A is invalid because this is used as a monitoring service and will not provide the level of details that are required as per the question. Option B is invalid because this is a compute service offered by AWS Option D is invalid because this is a notification service offered by AWS Below is a snapshot of the service limits that the Trusted Advisor can monitor Option A is invalid because even though you can monitor resources, it cannot be checked against the service limit. Option B is invalid because this is the Elastic Compute cloud service Option D is invalid because it can be send notification but not check on service limits For more information on the Trusted Advisor monitoring, please visit the below URL https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/ta-faqs/3. Right Answer: CExplanation: By default , keys created in KMS are created with the default key policy. When features are added to KMS, you need to explicitly update the default key policy for these keys. Option B,C and D are invalid because the key policy is the main entity used to provide access to the keys For more information on upgrading key policies please visit the following url https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/key-policy-upgrading.html4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: You can use a Lambda function to create a new key and then update the S3 bucket to use the new key. Remember not to delete the old key , else you will not be able to decrypt the documents stored in the S3 bucket using the older key. Option B is incorrect because AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS cannot rotate keys on a monthly basis Option C is incorrect because deleting the old key means that you cannot access the older objects Option D is incorrect because rotating key material is not possible. For more information on AWS(Amazon Web Service) KMS keys , please refer to below URL https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/concepts.html .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 112
Questions 1. During the extraction and transfer process of data from an application database to an enterprise data warehouse, some of the fields were not picked up in the extraction process and therefore did not end up in the data warehouse. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?A) Costs associated with correcting the process may exceed budgetB) Transaction errors may occur within the applicationC) Management decisions may be based on incorrect dataD) Management reporting could be delayed2. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when investigating a security breach of an e-commerce application?A) Chain of custodyB) Skill set of the response teamC) Notifications to law enforcementD) Procedures to analyze evidence3. The risk of communication failure in an e-commerce environment is BEST minimized through the use of:A) alternative or diverse routingB) compression software to minimize transmission durationC) a packet filtering firewall to reroute messagesD) functional or message acknowledgments4. During the testing of the business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following methods of results analysis provides the BEST assurance that the plan is workable?A) Measurement of accuracyB) Elapsed time for completion of critical tasksC) Quantitatively measuring the results of the testD) Evaluation of the observed test results5. Which of the following statements regarding an off-site information processing facility is TRUE?A) It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the primary processing site.B) It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational.C) It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found.D) Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: AExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: It is important to have ways to measure the success of the plan and tests against the stated objectives. Therefore, results must be quantitatively gauged as opposed to an evaluation based only on observation. Quantitatively measuring the results of the test involves a generic statement measuring all the activities performed during BCP, which gives the best assurance of an effective plan. Although choices A and B are also quantitative, they relate to specific areas, or an analysis of results from one viewpoint, namely the accuracy of the results and the elapsed time.Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, Chapter 5: Disaster Recovery andBusiness Continuity (page 269).5. Right Answer: AExplanation: It is very important that the offsite has the same restrictions in order to avoided misuse.The following answers are incorrect because:It should be located in proximity to the originating site so that it can quickly be made operational is incorrect as the offsite is also subject to the same disaster as of the primary site.It should be easily identified from the outside so in the event of an emergency it can be easily found is also incorrect as it should not be easily identified to prevent intentional sabotage.Need not have the same level of environmental monitoring as the originating site since this would be cost prohibitive is also incorrect as it should be like its primary site.Reference: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 5: Disaster Recovery andBusiness Continuity (page 265). .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 368
Questions 1. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of destroying sensitive data stored on electronic media?A) Physical destructionB) DegaussingC) Random character overwriteD) Low-level formatting2. Email required for business purposes is being stored on employees' personal devices. Which of the following is an IS auditor's BEST recommendation?A) Implement an email containerization solution on personal devicesB) Prohibit employees from storing company email on personal devices.C) Ensure antivirus to utilize passwords on personal devices.D) Require employees to utilize passwords on personal devices.3. When designing metrics for information security, the MOST important consideration is that the metrics:A) provide actionable data.B) apply to all business units.C) are easy to understand.D) track trends over time.4. An organization currently using tape backups takes one full backup weekly and incremental backups daily. They recently augmented their tape backup procedures with a backup-to- disk solution. This is appropriate because:A) fast synthetic backups for offsite storage are supported.B) backup to disk is always significantly faster than backup to tape.C) tape libraries are no longer needed.D) data storage on disks is more reliable than on tapes.5. Which of the following should be the MOST important criterion in evaluating a backup solution for sensitive data that must be retained for a long period of time due to regulatory requirements?A) Full backup windowB) Media costsC) Restore windowD) Media reliability Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: Reference:https://www.isaca.org/Journal/archives/2010/Volume-6/Pages/An-Introduction-to-Digital-Records-Management.aspx2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: Reference:https://m.isaca.org/Journal/archives/2016/volume-6/Documents/Journal-volume-6-2016.pdf4. Right Answer: AExplanation: Disk-to-disk (D2D) backup should not be seen as a direct replacement for backup to tape; rather, it should be viewed as part of a multitier backup architecture that takes advantage of the best features of both tape and disk technologies. Backups to disks are not dramatically faster than backups to tapes in a balanced environment. Most often than not there is hardly a difference, since the limiting components are not tape or disk drives but the overall sustained bandwidth of the backup server's backplane. The advantage in terms of speed is in restoring performance, since all data are on hand and can be accessed randomly, resulting in a dramatic enhancement in throughput. This makes fast synthetic backups (making a full back up without touching the host's data only by using the existing incremental backups) efficient and easy. Although the cost of disks has been reduced, tape-based backup can offer an overall cost advantage over disk-only solutions. Even if RAID arrays are used for D2Dstorage, a failed drive must be swapped out and the RAID set rebuilt before another disk drive fails, thus making this kind of backup more risky and not suitable as a solution of last resort. In contrast, a single tape drive failure does not produce any data loss since the data resides on the tape media. In a multidrive library, the loss of the use of a single tape drive has no impact on the overall level of data protection. Conversely, the loss of a disk drive in an array can put all data at risk. This in itself reinforces the benefits of a disk-to-disk-to-any storage hierarchy, as data could be protected by a tertiary stage of disk storage and ultimately tape. Beyond the drive failure issue, tape has an inherent reliability advantage over any disk drive as it has no boot sector or file allocation table that can be infected or manipulated by a virus.5. Right Answer: DExplanation: To comply with regulatory requirements, the media should be reliable enough to ensure an organization's ability to recovery the data should they be required for any reason. Media price is a consideration, but should not be more important than the ability to provide the required reliability. Choices A and C are less critical than reliability. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISM—Certified Information Security Manager - Part 228
Questions 1. Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of an information security strategy?A) Reporting of security metricsB) Regular security awareness trainingC) Endorsement by senior managementD) Implementation of security standards2. The MAIN reason for internal certification of web-based business applications is to ensure:A) compliance with industry standards.B) changes to the organizational policy framework are identified.C) up-to-date web technology is being used.D) compliance with organizational policies.3. Knowing which of the following is MOST important when the information security manager is seeking senior management commitment?A) Security costsB) Technical vulnerabilitiesC) Security technology requirementsD) Implementation tasks4. Which of the following would be the BEST way for a company to reduce the risk of data loss resulting from employee-owned devices accessing the corporate email system?A) Link the bring-your-device (BYOD) policy to the existing staff disciplinary policy.B) Require employees to undergo training before permitting access to the corporate email.C) Require employees to install a reputable mobile anti-virus solution on their personal devices.D) Use a mobile device management solution to isolate the local corporate email storage.5. Which of the following is the MOST effective defense against spear phishing attacks?A) Unified threat managementB) Web filteringC) Anti-spam solutionsD) User awareness training Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: DExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia A+ 1002 2023 Questions and answer - Part 46
Questions 1. A technician receives a report that the pages coming out of a laser printer are smearing when touched.Which of the following components should the technician check FIRST to resolve this issue?A) A. DrumB) B. FuserC) C. Pickup rollerD) D. Corona wire2. In order to prevent other users from editing files in -C:\ Files-, which of the following steps should be taken?A) A. Set NTFS permissions to read-onlyB) B. Set the folder to index files for searchC) C. Set the local administrator as the owner of the folderD) D. Set network share permissions to read-only3. Which of the following Windows utilities would MOST likely be used to identify system errors?A) A. System RestoreB) B. Event ViewerC) C. Security CenterD) D. Windows Defender4. The type of security threat that uses computers or other networks to accept and pass on viruses is called:A) A. phishing.B) B. botnets.C) C. logic bomb.D) D. man-in-the-middle.5. An IT manager needs to re-image 30 computers in a lab. The image has already been created and is ready to be deployed via the network. Which of the following tasks should be completed FIRST?A) A. Boot from PXE.B) B. Install Windows using DVD.C) C. Reboot computers with USB drive.D) D. Press F8 while rebooting. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: BExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia IT Fundamentals 2023 Questions and answer - Part 46
Questions 1. When operating under optimal network conditions, which of the following has the HIGHEST reliability?A) A. BluetoothB) B. WiredC) C. CellularD) D. WiFi2. A user needs to download tax documents from a financial website. Which of the following is the website MOST likely to use for transmission of the tax document to the users browser?A) A. HTTPB) B. HTTPSC) C. SFTPD) D. FTP3. Which of the following are secure network protocols? (Select TWO).(Select 2answers)A) A. IMAPB) B. FTPSC) C. SMTPD) D. HTTPSE) E. DNS4. Which of the following will allow the easiest and fastest way to share a single file between two modern smartphones without joining the same WiFi network?A) A. Micro SD cardB) B. BluetoothC) C. USB connectionD) D. Infrared5. Which of the following BEST describes the pros and cons of a home wired network?A) A. Low throughput, low mobility, high availability, high latency, high securityB) B. High throughput, high mobility, low availability, low latency, high securityC) C. High throughput, low mobility, high availability, low latency, high securityD) D. Low throughput, high mobility, low availability, high latency, low security Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: B,DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: CExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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