Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 130
Questions 1. Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record have been updated properly?A) Field checksB) Control totalsC) Reasonableness checksD) A before-and-after maintenance report2. Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?A) Blackbox testB) Desk checkingC) Structured walk-throughD) Design and code3. Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR)Project?A) An increased number of people using technologyB) Significant cost saving, through a reduction the complexity of information technologyC) A weaker organizational structures and less accountabilityD) Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase4. Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device?A) RouterB) BridgeC) RepeaterD) Gateway5. Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?A) Provide an audit trailB) Can be used in a switchboard environmentC) Permit unlimited user mobilityD) Allow call forwarding Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most positive verification that updating was proper.2. Right Answer: AExplanation: A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software modules, a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even drives the software behavior. In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and someone closely examines it by applying their mind, without actually activating the software. Therefore, these cannot be referred to as dynamic analysis tools.3. Right Answer: AExplanation: A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a cause for concern. Incorrect answers:B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.4. Right Answer: BExplanation: A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an Ethernet and token network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.5. Right Answer: AExplanation: A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled through callback systems that are available. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
CISA—Certified Information Systems Auditor - Part 386
Questions 1. As part of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include in a business impact analysis?A) Define a risk appetite.B) Assess risk of moving significant applications to the cloud.C) Assess recovery scenarios.D) Assess threats to the organization.2. Which of the following is the MOST important reason for updating and retesting a business continuity plan?A) Staff turnoverB) Emerging technologyC) Significant business changeD) Matching industry best practices3. When developing a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following should be performed FIRST?A) Develop business continuity trainingB) Classify operationsC) Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)D) Establish a disaster recovery plan (DRP)4. An organization has outsourced its data leakage monitoring to an Internet service provider (ISP). Which of the following is the BEST way for an IS auditor to determine the effectiveness of this service?A) Verify the ISP has staff to deal with data leakageB) Review the ISP's external audit reportC) Review the data leakage clause in the SLAD) Simulate a data leakage incident5. Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing a critical spreadsheet during a financial audit?A) Periodic access reviews are manually performed.B) Changes to the file are not always documented.C) Access requests are manually processed.D) A copy current validated file is not available. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Isaca COBIT 5 Certification - Part 3
Questions 1. Identify the missing word in the following sentence.Governance is about [?] and deciding amongst different stakeholders' value interests.A) TransformingB) SelectingC) SupportingD) Negotiating2. At what level are Inputs and Outputs defined?A) ProcessB) Management practiceC) ActivityD) Detailed Activity3. Which practice would NOT help to encourage desired behavior in an enterprise?A) Introducing a bonus schemeB) Communicating enforcement of policiesC) Appointing business championsD) Publishing Escalation procedures4. Which item describes a key component of a Governance System?A) Setting the Governance FrameworkB) Identifying responsibilities for governanceC) Ensuring compliance with regulationsD) Optimization of IT assets, resources and capabilities5. Which mechanism is NOT considered to be a good practice of Organizational Structures?A) Delegation of authorityB) Escalation proceduresC) Span of ControlD) Process Reference Model Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia A+ 1002 2023 Questions and answer - Part 64
Questions 1. An administrator is concerned about users accessing network shares outside of their job role. Which of the following would BEST prevent this?A) A. Set up shares with permissions based upon group membership.B) B. Implement a written policy addressing the issue for all users.C) C. Monitor access to the network shares using SNMP.D) D. Prevent remote logins to all network shares and drives.2. A user, Ann, receives a phone call from the company-s mail administrator who indicates her email account has been disabled due to high volumes of emails being sent in a very short period of time. Which of the following types of attack has the user experienced?A) A. Virus infectionB) B. Man-in-the-middle attackC) C. Phishing attackD) D. Malware infection3. A user states that when typing in directions on a navigation website, the map is not viewable in a newer web browser. The technician runs updates to Java, but is still unable to view the map. The technician should change which of the following Internet Options?A) A. Compatibility viewB) B. Manage add-onsC) C. Clear browser cacheD) D. Pop-up blocker4. A technician has purchased a new surge protector to protect equipment in the production environment. The surge protector-s features safeguard the connected equipment by directing surges to the:A) A. path of shortest conductance.B) B. path of lowest inductance.C) C. path of highest voltage.D) D. path of least resistance.5. The computer starts up and runs for less than a minute before shutting down or locking up. This is a symptom of:A) A. overheating.B) B. incompatible RAM.C) C. a faulty hard drive.D) D. a bad internal USB hub. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: AExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: AExplanation: 4. Right Answer: DExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Comptia Linux + 2023 Questions and answer - Part 14
Questions 1. Which of the following is the device file name for the second partition on the only SCSI drive?A) A. /dev/hda1B) B. /dev/sda2C) C. /dev/sd0a2D) D. /dev/sd1p22. In order to display all currently mounted filesystems, which of the following commands could be used? (Choose TWO correct answers.)(Select 2answers)A) A. cat /proc/self/mountsB) B. freeC) C. mountD) D. lsmountsE) E. cat /proc/filesystems3. Which of the following commands can be used to locate programs and their corresponding man pages and configuration files?A) A. dirnameB) B. whichC) C. basenameD) D. queryE) E. whereis4. Which of the following commands changes the number of days before the ext3 filesystem on /dev/sda1 has to run through a full filesystem check while booting?A) A. tune2fs -d 200 /dev/sda1B) B. tune2fs -c 200 /dev/sda1C) C. tune2fs -i 200 /dev/sda1D) D. tune2fs -n 200 /dev/sda1E) E. tune2fs --days 200 /dev/sda15. Which type of filesystem is created by mkfs when it is executed with the block device name only and without any additional parameters?A) A. ext2B) B. ext3C) C. ext4D) D. XFSE) E. VFAT Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: A,CExplanation: 3. Right Answer: EExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: AExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
ComptiA Security+ Certification Exam Questions and answer - Part 40
Questions 1. A security engineer must install the same x.509 certificate on three different servers. The client application that connects to the server performs a check to ensure the certificate matches the host name. Which of the following should the security engineer use?A) Wildcard certificateB) Extended validation certificateC) Certificate chainingD) Certificate utilizing the SAN file2. A security analyst is investigating a security breach. Upon inspection of the audit an access logs,the analyst notices the host was accessed and the /etc/passwd file was modified with a new entry for username - gotcha and user ID of 0. Which of the following are the MOST likely attack vector and tool the analyst should use to determine if the attack is still ongoing? (Select TWO)(Select 2answers)A) KeyloggerB) TracertC) Logic bombD) NetstatE) PingF) Backdoor3. A procedure differs from a policy in that it:A) describes adverse actions when violations occur.B) is a high-level statement regarding the company's position on a topic.C) provides step-by-step instructions for performing a task.D) sets a minimum expected baseline of behavior.4. A security analyst is hardening a WiFi infrastructure. The primary requirements are the following: The infrastructure must allow staff to authenticate using the most secure method. The infrastructure must allow guests to use an 'open' WiFi network that logs valid email addresses before granting access to the Internet. Given these requirements,which of the following statements BEST represents what the analyst should recommend and configure?A) Configure a captive portal for guests and WPS for staff.B) Configure a captive portal for staff and WEP for guests.C) Configure a captive portal for guest and WPA2 Enterprise for staffD) Configure a captive portal for staff and WPA for guests.5. A security consultant is setting up a new electronic messaging platform and wants to ensure the platform supports message integrity validation. Which of the following protocols should the consultant recommend?A) DNSSECB) S/MIMEC) RADIUSD) 802.11x Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: DExplanation: SAN = Subject Alternate Names2. Right Answer: D,FExplanation: 3. Right Answer: CExplanation: 4. Right Answer: CExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Excel Certification Success Practice Questions 2023 - Part 8
Questions 1. Which of the following is an example of a chart type in Excel?A) Lookup functionB) Conditional formattingC) Scatter plotD) VLOOKUP function2. What is the difference between Scenario Manager and Data Tables in Excel?A) Scenario Manager is used to create charts while Data Tables are used for forecastingB) Data Tables allows users to analyze multiple scenarios while Scenario Manager is used to perform one specific calculationC) Both Scenario Manager and Data Tables are used for what-if analysisD) Scenario Manager allows users to analyze multiple scenarios while Data Tables are used to perform one specific calculation3. Which Excel tool allows you to create a chart that shows the proportion of each data series in relation to the whole?A) Line chartB) Bar chartC) Scatter chartD) Pie chart4. What is the purpose of Goal Seek in Excel?A) To create a chart or graphB) To identify relationships between variablesC) To analyze trends in dataD) To find a specific result by adjusting one input value5. What is the purpose of using a data table in Excel?A) To create custom charts and graphs based on large data sets.B) To compare multiple scenarios side-by-side based on different inputs.C) To display a range of calculated results based on varying inputs.D) To perform what-if analysis and forecast future trends. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: A scatter plot is an example of a chart type in Excel.2. Right Answer: DExplanation: Scenario Manager allows users to analyze multiple scenarios while Data Tables are used to perform one specific calculation.3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: DExplanation: Goal Seek is used to find a specific result by adjusting one input value.5. Right Answer: CExplanation: The purpose of a data table is to display a range of calculated results based on varying inputs. .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
APICS Certified Supply Chain Professional CSCPPractice Questions 2023 - Part 51
Questions 1. A company originally based in Germany sets up companies in India, China, Vietnam, Mexico, and Brazil. It sources most of the raw materials locally and employs the local workforce to manage and produce finished goods. Most of the goods produced are consumed in the same country. The company can be classified as what type of enterprise?A) Globally integratedB) DomesticC) MultinationalD) Virtual2. When doing international business, a company's total line-haul costs will vary with the:A) weight shipped.B) distance shipped.C) pallets shipped.D) volume shipped.3. Customizing can be an effective warehousing strategy because it allows a company to:A) allocate available storage space to optimize handling costs.B) address trade-offs between space and material handling needs.C) effectively design its inbound and outbound dock areas.D) add value to the product through modification, labeling, and packaging.4. Which of the following measures effectively evaluates overall resources in a distribution warehouse?A) ThroughputB) Cube utilizationC) Filled pallet positionsD) Labor efficiency5. A manufacturer of consumer packaged goods with a single plant and nine regional distribution centers is considering reducing the number of distribution centers in its system. Reducing the number of distribution centers most likely will reduce fixed warehousing and the cost of:A) storing cycle inventory in the distribution centers.B) storing finished-goods inventory at the manufacturing plants.C) transportation from the distribution centers to the customer.D) transportation from the plant to the distribution centers. Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: CExplanation: 2. Right Answer: BExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: AExplanation: 5. Right Answer: DExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
Created by - Mary Smith
Implementing Cisco Collaboration Practice Test Questions 2023 - Part 11
Questions 1. An engineer is configuring a call park feature in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. Which command does the engineer use to ensure that the call is reverted to the user after 60 seconds?A) R2(config-ephone-dn)#park-slot timeout 30 limit 2 recall alternate 3002B) R2(config-ephone-dn)#park-slot timeout 60 limit 2 recall alternate 3002C) R2(config-ephone-dn)#park reservation-group 60D) R2(config-ephone-dn)#park reservation-group 12. What is a component of Cisco Unified Mobility?A) Mobile ConnectB) Smart Client SupportC) Single Number ConnectD) Unified IVR3. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to configure Cisco IM and Presence Server High Availability?A) System > LDAP > LDAP DirectoryB) System > ServerC) System > Geolocation ConfigurationD) System > Presence Redundancy Groups4. Which CLI command is used to collect traces from the Cisco Presence engine for seven days?A) file build log presence_engine 7B) file build log cisco_presence_engine 7C) file build log cisco_presence 168D) 5. When Cisco IM and Presence is configured to use automatic fallback, how long does the Server Recovery Manager service wait for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated?A) 20 minutesB) 30 minutesC) 10 minutesD) Right Answer and Explanation: 1. Right Answer: BExplanation: 2. Right Answer: AExplanation: 3. Right Answer: DExplanation: 4. Right Answer: BExplanation: 5. Right Answer: BExplanation: .col-md-12 { -webkit-user-select: none; -ms-user-select: none; user-select: none; } .flash-sale-container{background:#134981;text-align:center;padding:2%;} p.flash-sale-text{ font-size:24px;font-family:"Poppins";letter-spacing:2px;line-height:1.4em; } span.flash-break{ display:block; } .flash-sale-text { -webkit-animation-name:flash; animation: blink 1.5s infinite; } @keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } } @-webkit-keyframes blink{ 0% { color: #D3585F; } 20% { color: #D3585F; } 40% { color: #FFF; } 60% { color: #FFF; } 80% { color: #D3585F; } 100% { color: #D3585F; } }
More detailsPublished - Fri, 03 Mar 2023
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